Chapter 3701-3 Communicable Diseases

3701-3-01 Definitions.

As used in Chapter 3701-3 of the Administrative Code:

(A) "Antimicrobial" means an agent that kills microorganisms or suppresses microorganism multiplication or growth.

(B) "Arthropod" means an organism of the phylum Arthropoda, such as an insect, spider, mite or tick.

(C) "Board of health" means the board of health of the city or general health district established by section 3709.01 of the Revised Code, or the authority having the duties of a board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.

(D) "Bioterrorism" means the intentional use of any microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or biological product that may be engineered as a result of biotechnology, or any naturally occurring or bioengineered component of a microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or biological product, to cause death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, animal, plant, or other living organism as a means of influencing the conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a population.

(E) "Child care center" means any private home, institution, or public or private facility in which child care is provided for one or more infants, toddlers, pre-school children, and school children outside of school hours, during any part of the twenty-four hour day, by persons other than the parents or legal guardians of the children in care.

(F) "Department" means the Ohio department of health.

(G) "Diarrhea" means three or more loose stools in a twenty-four hour period.

(H) "Director" means the director of health or his or her designee.

(I) "Endemic" means the constant presence of a disease or infectious agent within a given geographic area.

(J) "Epidemic" or "outbreak" means the occurrence of cases of disease in numbers greater than expected in a particular population or for a particular period of time.

(K) "Exclude" means to bar from participation.

(L) "Event" means an important happening or occurrence that results from an actual or suspected act of bioterrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, established or novel infectious agents, or biological or chemical toxins.

(M) "Food handler" means a person who prepares or serves food intended for human consumption.

(N) "Health care provider" means any person or government entity that provides health care services to individuals. "Health care provider" includes, but is not limited to, hospitals, medical clinics and offices, special care facilities, medical laboratories, physicians, dentists, physician assistants, registered and licensed practical nurses, emergency medical service organization personnel, and ambulance service personnel.

(O) "Health district" means a city or general health district as created by Chapter 3709. of the Revised Code.

(P) "Incidence" means the number of new cases of a disease occurring during a specified interval of time in a defined population.

(Q) "Infected individual" means a person whose body harbors a specific microorganism capable of producing disease, whether or not the person is experiencing signs or symptoms of the disease.

(R) "Isolation" means the separation of an infected individual from others during the period of disease communicability in such a way that prevents, as far as possible, the direct or indirect conveyance of an infectious agent to those who are susceptible to infection or who may spread the agent to others.

(S) "Pandemic" means an epidemic disease that is occurring throughout a very wide area, usually several countries or continents, and usually affecting a large proportion of the population.

(T) "Poison prevention and treatment center" or "center" means an entity designated as a poison prevention and treatment center by the director of health under section 3701.20 of the Revised Code.

(U) "Period of communicability" means the interval during which an infected individual or animal is shedding the specific microorganism of a communicable disease in such a manner that those who are susceptible could acquire the infection.

(V) Mammal means a warm blooded animal, other than a human being, usually with hair, that gives birth to live young, which are fed with milk secreted by the female mammary gland.

(W) "Quarantine" means the restriction of the movements or activities of a well individual or animal who has been exposed to a communicable disease during the period of communicability of that disease and in such a manner that transmission of the disease may have occurred. The duration of the quarantine ordered shall be equivalent to the usual incubation period of the disease to which the susceptible person or animal was exposed.

(X) "Sensitive occupation" means direct food handling, direct patient care, the handling of food or provision of direct care to children in a child care center, or any other occupation which provides significant opportunity for an infected individual to transmit infectious disease agents.

(Y) "Sexually-transmitted disease" or "venereal disease" is an infectious disease commonly contracted through sexual contact such as chancroid, chlamydia, gonococcal infection, granuloma inguinale, human immunodeficiency virus infection, lymphogranuloma venereum, or syphilis.

(Z) "Surveillance" means, in the public health service, the systematic collection, analysis, interpretation, and dissemination, of health data on an on-going basis, to gain knowledge of the pattern of disease occurrence and potential in a community in order to control and prevent disease in the community.

(AA) "Susceptible person" means a person that, when exposed to an infectious microorganism, may not possess sufficient resistance to prevent contracting the infection or disease.

Effective: 02/01/2011
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 10/18/2010 and 02/01/2016
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.23 , 3701.34
Rule Amplifies: 3701.23
Prior Effective Dates: 3/13/1980, 7/23/98, 10/19/03, 5/20/05, 1/1/09

3701-3-02 Diseases to be reported.

The diseases listed in this rule and classified as class "A", class "B", and class "C" are declared to be dangerous to the public health and are reportable. The occurrence of cases or suspected cases of a disease classified as class "A", class "B", or class "C" shall be reported, in detail, by health care providers and laboratories to the board of health on forms as prescribed and provided by the director and shall be reported in accordance with this rule and Chapter 3701-3 of the Administrative Code.

(A) Due to the severity of disease or the potential for epidemic spread, diseases of major public health concern are classified as class "A." The following diseases are classified as class "A" and shall be reported immediately via telephone in accordance with rules 3701-3-03 , 3701-3-04 , and 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code:

(1) Anthrax;

(2) Botulism, foodborne;

(3) Cholera;

(4) Diphtheria;

(5) Influenza "A" - novel virus infection;

(6) Measles;

(7) Meningococcal disease;

(8) Plague;

(9) Rabies, human;

(10) Rubella (not congenital);

(11) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS);

(12) Smallpox;

(13) Tularemia;

(14) Viral hemorrhagic fever (VHF);

(15) Yellow fever; and

(16) Any unexpected pattern of cases, suspected cases, deaths or increased incidence of any other disease of major public health concern, because of the severity of disease or potential for epidemic spread, which may indicate a newly recognized infectious agent, outbreak, epidemic, related public health hazard or act of bioterrorism.

(B) Due to the potential for epidemic spread, diseases of significant public health concern are classified as class "B." The following diseases are classified as class "B" and shall be reported in accordance with this rule and rules 3701-3-03 , 3701-3-04 , and 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code:

(1) Amebiasis;

(2) Arboviral neuroinvasive and non-neuroinvasive diseases:

(a) Eastern equine encephalitis virus disease;

(b) LaCrosse virus disease (other California serogroup virus disease);

(c) Powassan virus disease;

(d) St. Louis encephalitis virus disease;

(e) West Nile virus infection;

(f) Western equine encephalitis virus disease;

(g) Other Arthopod-borne diseases;

(3) Babesiosis;

(4) Botulism;

(a) Infant;

(b) Wound;

(5) Brucellosis;

(6) Campylobacteriosis;

(7) Chancroid;

(8) Chlamydia trachomatis infections;

(9) Coccidioidomycosis;

(10) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD);

(11) Cryptosporidiosis;

(12) Cyclosporiasis;

(13) Dengue;

(14) E. coli O157:H7 and Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC);

(15) Ehrlichiosis/anaplasmosis;

(16) Giardiasis;

(17) Gonorrhea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae);

(18) Haemophilus influenzae (invasive disease);

(19) Hantavirus;

(20) Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS);

(21) Hepatitis A;

(22) Hepatitis B (non-perinatal);

(23) Hepatitis B (perinatal);

(24) Hepatitis C;

(25) Hepatitis D (delta hepatitis);

(26) Hepatitis E;

(27) Influenza-associated hospitalization;

(28) Influenza-associated pediatric mortality;

(29) Legionnaires' disease;

(30) Leprosy (Hansen disease);

(31) Leptospirosis;

(32) Listeriosis;

(33) Lyme disease;

(34) Malaria;

(35) Meningitis;

(a) Aseptic (viral);

(b) Bacterial;

(36) Mumps;

(37) Mycobacterial disease, other than tuberculosis (MOTT);

(38) Pertussis;

(39) Poliomyelitis (including vaccine-associated cases);

(40) Psittacosis;

(41) Q fever;

(42) Rubella (congenital);

(43) Salmonellosis;

(44) Shigellosis;

(45) Spotted Fever Rickettsiosis, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF);

(46) Staphylococcus aureus, with resistance or intermediate resistance to vancomycin (VRSA, VISA);

(47) Streptococcal disease, group A, invasive (IGAS);

(48) Streptococcal disease, group B, in newborn;

(49) Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (STSS);

(50) Streptococcus pneumoniae, invasive disease (ISP);

(51) Syphilis;

(52) Tetanus;

(53) Toxic shock syndrome (TSS);

(54) Trichinellosis;

(55) Tuberculosis (TB), including multi-drug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB);

(56) Typhoid fever;

(57) Typhus fever;

(58) Varicella;

(59) Vibriosis; and

(60) Yersiniosis.

(C) The following are classified as class "C" and shall be reported by the end of the next business day in accordance with this rule and rules 3701-3-03 , 3701-3-04 , and 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code unless paragraph (C)(7) of this rule applies -outbreak, unusual incidence, or epidemic of other infectious diseases from the following sources:

(1) Community;

(2) Foodborne;

(3) Healthcare-associated;

(4) Institutional;

(5) Waterborne; and

(6) Zoonotic;

(7) If the outbreak, unusual incidence, or epidemic, including but not limited to, histoplasmosis, pediculosis, scabies, and staphylococcal infections, has an unexpected pattern of cases, suspected cases, deaths, or increased incidence of disease that is of a major public health concern pursuant to paragraph (A)(16) of this rule, then such outbreak, unusual incidence, or epidemic shall be reported in accordance with paragraph (A) of rule 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code.

Effective: 01/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 08/05/2013 and 02/01/2016
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.23 , 3701.34
Rule Amplifies: 3701.23
Prior Effective Dates: 4/1/1964, 3/13/80, 12/3/83, 9/3/83, 4/17/86, 6/18/90, 10/31/93, 4/9/95, 7/11/96, 1/1/99, 2/15/01, 10/17/02, 4/14/03, 1/1/06, 1/1/09, 2/1/11

3701-3-02.1 Reporting of occupational diseases.

(A) Every physician attending on or called in to visit a patient whom the physician believes to be suffering from any of the occupational diseases or occupationally related ailments listed in paragraph (B) of this rule shall submit a report to the director of health within forty-eight hours from the time of first attending the patient. This report shall be made on, or in conformity with, the standard schedule blanks which the director is required to provide physicians pursuant to section 3701.26 of the Revised Code and shall contain the following information:

(1) The name, address, and occupation of the patient;

(2) The name, address, and business of the patient's employer;

(3) The nature of the disease or ailment; and

(4) Name, address and telephone number of the physician.

The mailing of the report, within the time required by this paragraph shall constitute compliance with section 3701.25 the Revised Code and this rule.

(B) The following occupational diseases and ailments are required to be reported:

(1) Poisoning from phosphorous, brass, arsenic, mercury, wood alcohol or their compounds;

(2) Compressed air illness;

(3) Poisoning from lead and cadmium.

Replaces: 3701-3- 02.1

Effective: 07/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.25
Rule Amplifies: 3701.25 , 3701.26
Prior Effective Dates: 7/23/1998, 11/3/90, 1/1/09

3701-3-02.2 Air- and blood-borne diseases reasonably likely to be transmitted to emergency medical services workers.

(A) Section 3701.248 of the Revised Code allows an emergency medical services worker to ask a health care facility or coroner to notify them of the results of tests for certain diseases, if the worker believes that he or she had a significant exposure through contact with a patient. The diseases subject to this procedure are contagious or infectious diseases that are specified as reasonably likely to be transmitted by air or blood during the normal course of an emergency medical services worker's duties. The diseases listed in paragraph (B) of this rule are specified for purposes of section 3701.248 of the Revised Code.

(B) The following diseases are specified as reasonably likely to be transmitted by air or blood during the normal course of an emergency medical worker's duties:

(1) Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever;

(2) Diphtheria;

(3) Ebola hemorrhagic fever;

(4) Fifth disease (human parvovirus infection);

(5) Hansen disease (leprosy);

(6) Acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B virus;

(7) Acute or chronic infection with hepatitis C virus;

(8) Infection with hepatitis D virus (delta hepatitis);

(9) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, including acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) ;

(10) Infection with human t-lymphotropic virus (HTLV-1 and HTLV-2);

(11) Lassa fever;

(12) Leishmaniasis, visceral (Kala-Azar);

(13) Leptospirosis;

(14) Marburg hemorrhagic fever;

(15) Measles (rubeola);

(16) Meningococcal disease ( Neisseria meningitidis);

(17) Mumps (infectious parotitis);

(18) Pertussis (whooping cough);

(19) Pneumonic plague ( Yersinia pestis);

(20) Rabies;

(21) Rubella (German measles);

(22) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

(23) Tuberculosis; and

(24) Varicella (herpes zoster) infection, including chickenpox and shingles.

Effective: 07/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 03/26/2014 and 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.248
Rule Amplifies: 3701.248
Prior Effective Dates: 3/8/1992

3701-3-03 Reportable disease notification.

(A) A health care provider with knowledge of a case or suspect case of a disease which is required by law to be reported, including all class "A", class "B", and class "C" categories of disease designated as reportable under rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code, shall submit a case report in the manner set forth in rule 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code .

(1) A health care provider may submit electronic reports in the manner approved by the director .

(2) Unless otherwise demonstrated, a health care provider who submits electronic reports in the manner approved by the director shall be presumed compliant with section 3701.23 of the Revised Code and rules 3701-3-02 , 3701-3-04 , and 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code.

(B) Reports of cases and suspect cases shall include, but not limited to, the following:

(1) Case or suspect case information: name, diagnosis or suspected diagnosis, date of birth, sex, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip code.

(2) Health care provider information: name, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip code.

(3) Supplementary information as needed to complete official surveillance forms provided or set forth by the director .

(C) Any individual having knowledge of a person suffering from a disease suspected of being communicable is authorized to report to public health authorities all known facts relating to the case or incident.

Effective: 02/01/2011
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 10/18/2010 and 02/01/2016
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.23 , 3701.34
Rule Amplifies: 3701.23
Prior Effective Dates: 4/1/64, 4/13/80, 7/23/1998, 1/1/09

3701-3-04 Laboratory result reporting.

(A) The person in charge of any laboratory that examines specimens of human origin for evidence of diseases designated as reportable by rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall report all positive results of such examinations in the manner set forth in rule 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code .

(B) A positive result of a laboratory examination for a reportable disease shall be considered reason to suspect that a person is infected by that disease. Upon receipt of a laboratory report of a positive result for a reportable disease, the city or general health district in which the suspect case resides shall make an inquiry through the appropriate health care provider to determine if the suspected case exists.

(C) A laboratory report shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

(1) Case information: name, date of birth, sex, and street address including city, state, and zip code.

(2) Laboratory test information: specimen identification number, specimen collection date, specimen type, test name, test result, and if applicable, the organism and serotype.

(3) Health care provider information: name, telephone number, street address including city, state, and postal zip code.

Effective: 02/01/2011
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 10/18/2010 and 02/01/2016
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.23 , 3701.34
Rule Amplifies: 3701.23
Prior Effective Dates: 4/1/64, 4/13/80, 7/23/1998, 1/1/09

3701-3-05 Time to report.

Reports by health care providers, as specified in rule 3701-3-03 of the Administrative Code, and reports by laboratories of positive results, as specified in rule 3701-3-04 of the Administrative Code, shall be provided in the manner set forth by the director according to the following time and method of reporting:

(A) Cases, suspect cases, and positive laboratory results for diseases specified as class "A" in paragraph (A) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall be initially and immediately provided by telephone to the local health jurisdiction in which the case or suspected case resides, or if the residence is unknown, to the Ohio department of health. Follow up reports shall be provided in the manner set forth by the director. If cases, suspect cases, and positive laboratory results for diseases specified as class "A" are reported to a local health district, such local health jurisdiction shall immediately notify the Ohio department of health in the manner set forth by the director.

(B) Case and suspect case reports and reports of positive laboratory results for diseases specified as class "B" in paragraph (B) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall be provided by the end of the next business day.

(C) Reports related to an actual or suspected outbreak, unusual incident, or epidemic of any disease specified as class "C" in paragraph (C) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall be provided by the end of the next business day, unless the unexpected pattern of cases, suspect cases, deaths, or increased incidence of disease is of major public health concern pursuant to paragraph (A) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code, then such reports shall be made according to paragraph (A) of this rule.

Effective: 01/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 08/05/2013 and 02/01/2016
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.23 , 3701.34
Rule Amplifies: 3701.23
Prior Effective Dates: 4/1/1964, 3/13/80, 7/23/98, 1/1/09, 2/1/11

3701-3-06 Reporting to department.

A board of health that receives a report of a case, suspected case or positive laboratory result pursuant to rules 3701-3-02 , 3701-3-03 , 3701-3-04 , and 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code shall report the same report to the department as follows:

(A) Diseases specified as class "A" in paragraph (A) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall be reported by telephone immediately after the existence of such case or suspect case is known to the board of health.

(B) Diseases specified as class "B" in paragraph (B) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall be reported by the end of the next business day after the existence of such case or suspect case or positive laboratory result is known to the board of health.

(C) Outbreaks, unusual incidence, or epidemics of diseases specified as class "C" in paragraph (C) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall be reported by the end of the next business day after the outbreak, unusual incidence, or epidemic is known to the board of health.

Effective: 01/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 08/05/2013 and 02/01/2016
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.24 , 3701.34
Rule Amplifies: 3701.24 , 3707.06
Prior Effective Dates: 4/1/64, 3/13/80, 7/23/1998, 1/1/09

3701-3-08 Release of patient's medical records.

Any person, hospital, clinic, agency or other institution or facility providing care or treatment to an individual suffering from a communicable disease which is required to be reported under Chapter 3701. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted by the director of health , or a disease that the director requires special inquiry be made under sections 3701.13 and 3701.14 of the Revised Code, shall, upon written request by the director provide access to the patient's medical record to the director during an investigation of such disease.

Effective: 07/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 03/26/2014 and 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.13
Rule Amplifies: 3701.06 , 3701.13 , 3701.14
Prior Effective Dates: 2/4/1983, 7/23/98, 1/1/09

3701-3-09 Methods of control. [Rescinded].

Rescinded eff 1-1-09

3701-3-10 Approval of human immunodeficiency virus tests.

(A) In approving tests to be used to determine whether an individual has human immunodeficiency virus infection under division (B)(1) of section 3701.241 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall consider:

(1) Whether the test has been approved by the United States food and drug administration.

(2) The recommendations of the United States centers for disease control and prevention.

(B) The director shall define a confirmed positive test result as:

(1) Two or more reactive enzyme immunoassay tests;

(2) A positive culture of the human immunodeficiency virus;

(3) A positive reaction to an human immunodeficiency virus antigen test licensed by the United States food and drug administration;

(4) Identification of the human immunodeficiency virus by the use of nucleic acid amplification probe to detect the presence of human immunodeficiency virus;

(5) The director may define other confirmed positive test results after consideration of the recommendations of the United States centers for disease control and prevention.

(C) In developing guidelines for interpreting test results, the director shall consider interpretation criteria established by the United States centers for disease control and prevention.

Replaces: 3701-3-10

Effective: 07/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.241
Rule Amplifies: 3701.24 , 3707.241, 3701.242 , 3701.243 , 3701.244 , 3701.245 , 3701.246 , 3701.247 , 3701.248 , 3701.249 , 3? 01.45, 3? 01.46
Prior Effective Dates: 11/30/1989 (Emer), 2/3/90, 7/23/98

3701-3-11 Requirements related to human immunodeficiency virus testing.

(A) A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test may be performed by or on the order of the health care provider who, in the exercise of the provider's professional judgment and within the provider's scope of practice, determines the test to be necessary for providing diagnosis and treatment to the individual to be tested if the individual or the individual's parent or guardian has given consent. Prior to performing or ordering an HIV test, the health care provider shall inform the individual to be tested of the individual's right to an anonymous test as set forth in section 3701.242 of the Revised Code and paragraph (C) of this rule.

(B) Pursuant to division (B) of section 3701.242 of the Revised Code, a minor may consent to be given an HIV test. The consent is not subject to disaffirmance because of minority. The parents or guardian of a minor giving consent under this paragraph are not responsible for payments for an HIV test given to the minor without the consent of a parent or the guardian.

(C) Any individual seeking an HIV test shall have the right, on the individual's request, to an anonymous test. A health care facility or health care provider that does not provide anonymous testing shall refer the individual requesting an anonymous test to a site where anonymous testing is available.

(D) If an individual tests positive for HIV, the health care provider who performed or ordered the test shall provide post-test counseling. Post-test counseling is suggested for all individuals seeking testing. Post-test counseling may be verbal or in writing and shall included, but is not limited to, the following:

(1) An explanation of the HIV test result. If, at the time of the HIV test, the result is preliminarily positive, the health care provider must explain the next step to confirm the test result;

(2) The nature of HIV disease;

(3) A list of resources for medical treatment, social services and, when necessary, a referral for further counseling to help that individual cope with the emotional consequences of learning of the test result;

(4) The individual will be provided information about the importance of following safer sex practices to protect themselves from sexually transmitted diseases, as well as how to protect others from being infected; and

(5) The individual will be provided information about Ohio's HIV disclosure laws.

(E) The requirements of paragraphs (B) to (D) of this rule do not apply to the performance of an HIV test in any of the following circumstances:

(1) When the test is performed in a medical emergency by a nurse or physician and the test results are medically necessary to avoid or minimize an immediate danger to the health or safety of the individual to be tested or another individual. Post-test counseling shall be given to the individual if the individual received an HIV positive test result as soon as possible after the emergency is over;

(2) When the test is performed for the purpose of research if the researcher does not know and cannot determine the identity of the individual tested;

(3) When the test is performed by a person who procures, processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from deceased person donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code, if the test is medically necessary to ensure that the body part is acceptable for its intended purpose;

(4) When the test is performed on a person incarcerated in a penal institution if the head of the institution has determined, based on good cause, that a test is necessary; or

(5) When the test is performed on an individual after the infection control committee of a health care facility, or other body of a health care facility performing a similar function determines that a health care provider, emergency medical service worker, or peace officer, when rendering health or emergency care to an individual, has sustained significant exposure to the body fluids that are known to transmit HIV of that individual, and the individual has refused to give consent for testing.

(F) The consent of the individual to be tested is not required, and the individual or guardian may not elect to have an anonymous test, when the test is ordered by a court in connection with a criminal investigation.

Replaces: 3701-3-11

Effective: 10/30/2010
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 04/01/2015
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.241
Rule Amplifies: 3701.242
Prior Effective Dates: 3/13/80, 11/30/1989 (Emer.), 2/19/90, 8/17/92, 7/11/96, 7/23/98, 1/1/09

3701-3-12 AIDS, ARC, and HIV test reporting.

(A) As used in this rule:

(1) "AIDS" has the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.

(2) "ARC" is a historic term having the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.

(3) "A CD4 count" means a count of lymphocytes containing the CD4 epitope as determined by the results of lymphocyte phenotyping.

(4) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.

(5) "Health care provider" has the same meaning as in section 3701.23 of the Revised Code.

(6) "HIV" has the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.

(7) "HIV infection" means a disease of the human immune system caused by infection with the human immunodeficiency virus.

(8) "HIV test" has the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.

(9) "HIV viral load" means concentration of HIV virus in blood.

(B) Persons required to report cases of AIDS, ARC, HIV, confirmed positive tests for HIV, and HIV infections pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of section 3701.24 of the Revised Code and this rule are as follows:

(1) Health care providers shall report every case of HIV infection, including AIDS, for persons under their treatment and care. In an institutional or health care facility setting, a designated agent, including, but not limited to, an infection preventionist may make the report for the diagnosing or treating health care provider.

(2) The individual in charge of the laboratory shall report all positive or repeatedly reactive results from antigen detection, nucleic acid detection, detection of antibody confirmed with a supplemental test, or positive cultures used in the diagnosis of HIV infection, CD4 counts and percentages when performed to monitor the progression of HIV disease, and detectable and undetectable viral load results when performed to monitor the efficacy of HIV treatment. If a second laboratory is used for additional or supplemental HIV testing, the person in charge of the laboratory first receiving the specimen shall report the results of the supplemental testing.

(C) Every health care provider attending a newborn infant or child born to an HIV infected mother shall report every instance of perinatal exposure to HIV and any subsequent test results on every such exposed newborn infant or child until such time that either an HIV infection or a sero status that is negative is confirmed. In an institutional or health care facility setting, a designated agent, including, but not limited to, an infection preventionist, may make the report for the diagnosing or treating health care provider.

(D) Persons designated by paragraphs (B) and (C) of this rule shall report every case of HIV infection, including AIDS, every instance of perinatal exposure to HIV, and HIV test as described in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule to the department of health as follows (in each county the director shall designate the health commissioner of a health district in the county to receive the reports):

(1) Health care provider shall provide the following information:

(a) Case information: name, diagnosis, date of birth, sex, ethnicity, race, and street address including city, state, and zip code.

(b) Health care provider information: name, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip code.

(c) Laboratory test information: specimen collection date, specimen type, test name, test result, and reference range, where applicable.

(d) Supplementary information as needed to complete official surveillance forms provided or set forth by the director.

(e) A health care provider may submit electronic reports in the manner approved by the director.

(2) Person in charge of a laboratory shall provide the following information:

(a) Case information: name, diagnosis, date of birth, sex, ethnicity, race, and street address including city, state, and zip code.

(b) Health care provider information: name, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip code.

(c) Laboratory information: name, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip code.

(d) Laboratory test information: specimen collection date, specimen type, test name, test result, and reference range, where applicable.

(e) A laboratory may submit electronic reports in the manner approved by the director.

(3) Health care providers and laboratories shall report in the following manner:

(a) Persons designated in paragph (B)(1) of this rule shall report to the local health district in which the case resides, or if the residence is unknown, to the Ohio department of health no later five calendar days from the date of diagnosis or specimen collection date, whichever is later.

(b) Persons designated in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule shall report to the local health district in which the case resides, or if the residence is unknown, to the Ohio department of health no later than five calendar days from the test result.

(c) Persons designated in paragraph (C) of this rule shall report to the local health district in which the infant was born, or if unknown, to the Ohio department of health no later than five calendar days from the infant's date of birth.

Replaces: 3701-3-12

Effective: 07/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.242
Rule Amplifies: 3701.24 , 3701.241 , 3701.242 , 3701.243 , 3701.244 , 3701.245 , 3701.246 , 3701.247 , 3701.248 , 3701.249
Prior Effective Dates: 6/18/1990, 5/2/02, 1/1/09

3701-3-13 Isolation requirement.

A person infected with one of the following specified diseases or conditions shall be isolated as set forth in this rule:

(A) Amebiasis: a person with amebiasis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return after diarrhea has ceased and three follow-up stool specimens are negative for Entamoeba histolytica.

(B) Campylobacteriosis: a person with campylobacteriosis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return when the following conditions are met:

(1) A child may return to a child care center after his or her diarrhea has ceased.

(2) A person may return to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided the person's duties do not include food handling.

(3) A food handler may return to work only after diarrhea has ceased and one of the following conditions are met:

(a) Forty-eight hours of effective antimicrobial therapy; or

(b) Two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for Campylobacter.

(C) Chickenpox: a person with chickenpox shall be isolated, including exclusion from school, child care center, and public places until the sixth day after onset of rash, or until all lesions are dry. Contagiousness may be prolonged in patients with altered immunity. Persons with chickenpox shall avoid contact with susceptible persons.

(D) Cholera: a person with cholera who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return when the following conditions are met:

(1) A child may return to a child care center after diarrhea has ceased.

(2) A person may return to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided that his or her duties do not include food handling.

(3) A food handler may return to work after diarrhea has ceased and two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for Vibrio cholerae.

(E) Conjunctivitis, purulent: a person with purulent conjunctivitis who attends or works in a child care center shall be excluded from the child care center and may return twenty-four hours after the initiation of effective antimicrobial therapy.

(F) Cryptosporidiosis: a person with cryptosporidiosis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return when the following conditions are met:

(1) The child may return to the child care center after diarrhea has ceased.

(2) A person may return to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided that his or her duties do not include food handling.

(3) A food handler may return to work after diarrhea has ceased and after three consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for Cryptosporidium.

(G) Cyclosporiasis: a person with cyclosporiasis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return after diarrhea has ceased and effective antimicrobial therapy has begun.

(H) Diarrhea, infectious or of unknown cause: a person with diarrhea, of infectious or unknown cause, who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return only after diarrhea has ceased. A person with infectious diarrhea of known cause shall be isolated in accordance with the provisions of the rule set forth for the specified disease.

(I) Diphtheria: a person with diphtheria shall be isolated until two cultures, from both throat and nose, and additionally, in the case of cutaneous diphtheria, a culture from skin lesions, are negative for diphtheria bacilli. Cultures shall be taken not less than twenty-four hours apart, and not less than twenty-four hours after cessation of antimicrobial therapy. If culturing is unavailable or impractical, isolation may be ended after fourteen days of effective antimicrobial therapy.

(J) Escherichia coli (E. coli) O157:H7, other enterohemorrhagic (Shiga toxin-producing) E. coli or hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS): a person with Escherichia coli (E.

coli O157:H7, other enterohemorrhagic (Shiga toxin-producing) E. coli or hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return after his or her diarrhea has ceased and after two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for E. coli O157:H7 or other enterohemorrhagic (Shiga toxin-producing) E. coli.

(K) Giardiasis: a person with giardiasis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return after diarrhea has ceased and one of the following conditions have been met:

(1) Seventy-two hours of effective antimicrobial therapy; or

(2) Three consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for Giardia.

(L) Hepatitis A: a person with hepatitis A who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation until ten days after initial onset of symptoms.

(M) Measles: a person with measles shall be isolated, including exclusion from school or child care center, for four days following the onset of rash. Contagiousness may be prolonged in patients with altered immunity.

(N) Meningitis, aseptic, and viral meningoencephalitis, but not including arthropod-borne disease: a person with aseptic meningitis or viral meningoencephalitis shall be excluded from school or child care center until he or she is afebrile.

(O) Meningococcal disease: a person with meningococcal disease shall be isolated until twenty-four hours after the initiation of effective antimicrobial therapy.

(P) Mumps: a person with mumps shall be isolated, including exclusion from school or child care center, for five days after the onset of parotid swelling.

(Q) Pediculosis: a person with body lice shall be excluded from school or child care center until twenty-four hours after application of an effective pediculicide. A person with head lice shall be excluded from school or child care center until after the first treatment with an effective pediculicide.

(R) Pertussis (whooping cough): a person with pertussis, who is not treated with effective antimicrobial therapy, shall be isolated, including exclusion from school or child care center, until three weeks after the onset of paroxysms. If effective antimicrobial therapy is given, the person shall be isolated for five days after initiation of antimicrobial therapy.

(S) Plague: a person with plague shall be placed in droplet isolation until completion of forty-eight hours of effective antimicrobial therapy.

(T) Rubella: a person with rubella shall be isolated, including exclusion from school or child care center, for seven days after the onset of the rash. Persons with congenital rubella shall be isolated until they are one year old unless nasopharyngeal and urine cultures after three months of age are repeatedly negative for rubella.

(U) Salmonellosis: a person with salmonellosis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return when the following conditions are met:

(1) The child may return to the child care center after diarrhea has ceased.

(2) A person may return to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided that his or her duties do not include food handling.

(3) A person who is a food handler may return to work after diarrhea has ceased and after two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for Salmonella.

(V) SARS (severe acute respiratory distress syndrome): a person with confirmed or suspected SARS shall be placed in airborne isolation until no longer considered infectious.

(W) Scabies: a person with scabies shall be isolated for twenty-four hours following initial treatment with an effective scabicide. A person with the manifestation of scabies known as "crusted scabies" shall be isolated until the mite can no longer be demonstrated on a scabies preparation.

(X) Shigellosis: a person with shigellosis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return if diarrhea has ceased and after two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for Shigella.

(Y) Smallpox: a person with confirmed or suspected smallpox shall be placed in airborne isolation in a facility designated by the director. The patient's release from the facility can occur when all scabs have fallen off.

(Z) Streptococcal infection: a person with a streptococcal infection shall be excluded from school or child care center for twenty-four hours after the initiation of effective antimicrobial therapy.

(AA) Tuberculosis (TB): a person with infectious tuberculosis shall be isolated according to Chapter 3701-15 of the Administrative Code until the person has three negative AFB sputum smear results, collected eight to twenty-four hours apart (with at least one being an early morning specimen) and the person has responded clinically to an antituberculosis treatment regimen consistent with the results of any susceptibility testing performed and until the local authorized TB authority, as set out in section 339.72 of the Revised Code, or his or her designee approves that person's removal from isolation.

(BB) Typhoid fever person works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from work and may return after the person is asymptomatic and after three consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for Salmonella Typhi.

(CC) Typhus: a louse infested person with typhus shall be isolated until twenty-four hours after application of an effective pediculicide for body lice and clothing and environment are free of body lice.

(DD) Viral hemorrhagic fever (VHF): a person with confirmed or suspected viral hemorrhagic fever shall be placed in airborne isolation until no longer considered infectious.

(EE) Yellow fever: a person with confirmed or suspected yellow fever shall be isolated to prevent access of mosquitoes to the patient for at least five days after onset of disease.

(FF) Yersiniosis: a person with yersiniosis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation shall be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return when the following conditions are met:

(1) A child may return to the child care center after diarrhea has ceased.

(2) A person may return to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided that his or her duties do not include food handling.

(3) A food handler may return to work after diarrhea has ceased and two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for Yersinia.

Effective: 07/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 03/26/2014 and 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.13
Rule Amplifies: 3701.13 , 3701.24 , 3701.241 , 3701.242 , 3701.243 , 3701.244 , 3701.245 , 3701.246 , 3701.247 , 3701.248 , 3701.249 , 3707.04 , 3707.05 , 3707.06 , 3707.07 , 3707.08
Prior Effective Dates: 11/15/1976, 7/23/98, 10/17/02, 1/1/09

3701-3-14 Reporting requirements-poison control prevention and treatment centers and other health-related entities.

(A) For the purpose of this rule

(1) "Biological or chemical toxins" mean poisonous compounds produced by a microorganism or a poisonous chemical compound that pose a risk of human fatality or disability.

(2) "Novel infectious agents" mean agents that are unusual that pose a risk of human fatality or disability.

(3) "Other health-related entity" means an entity that employs health care providers, but that does not have an obligation to report events to the health district having jurisdiction in accordance with the requirements of Chapters 3701. and 3707. of the Revised Code.

(B) A poison control prevention and treatment center or other health-related entity shall report the following events:

(1) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of telephone inquiries or requests to provide information about poison prevention and treatment and available services;

(2) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of requests to provide specialized treatment, consultation, information, and educational programs to health care professionals and the public;

(3) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of requests for information on established or novel infectious agents or biological or chemical toxins posing a risk of human fatality or disability that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused by bioterrorism.

(C) Unless provided otherwise, all reports required by paragraph (B) of this rule shall be submitted to the health commissioner of the health district having jurisdiction over the event. Poison control prevention and treatment centers and other health-related entities shall immediately report an event as specified in rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code, to the extent known or suspected, or upon the request from the director in the manner specified in paragraph (B) of rule 3701-3-03 of the Administrative Code.

(D) As required by division (C) of section 3701.201 of the Revised Code, poison control prevention and treatment centers and other health-related entities shall report information regarding events as specified in this rule. A poison control prevention and treatment center or other entity that does not report events in compliance with this rule is subject to an administrative fine as specified in rule 3701-73-02 of the Administrative Code.

R.C. 119.032 review dates: 04/27/2010 and 04/01/2015
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.201
Rule Amplifies: 3701.201
Prior Effective Dates: 5/20/2005

3701-3-15 Reporting requirements-pharmacies or pharmacists.

(A) As used in this rule:

(1) "Pharmacist" means an individual licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of pharmacy as a pharmacist.

(2) "Pharmacy," means the same as defined in division (A) of section 4729.01 . of the Revised Code.

(3) "Prescription" means the same as defined in division (H) of section 4729.01 . of the Revised Code.

(4) "Significant changes" means observations or occurrences of or related to medication usage that is, based on professional experience and judgment, too closely correlated to be attributed to chance.

(5) "Unexpected increase" means, based on past experience, an unforeseen change in the types, urgency, or volume of sales, inquiries or requests specified in this rule.

(B) All pharmacies and pharmacists shall immediately report information by telephone or electronically to the health commissioner of the health district having jurisdiction:

(1) Any prescription for medication used to treat a disease that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused by bioterrorism, or

(2) Significant changes in medication usage that may be caused by bioterrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or established or novel infectious agents or biological toxins posing a risk of human fatality or disability, or

(3) An unexpected increase in:

(a) The number of prescriptions issued for antibiotics;

(b) The number of prescriptions issued for medications to treat fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal complaints;

(c) The sales of or the number of requests for over-the-counter medication to treat fever, respiratory, or gastrointestinal complaints.

(C) Pharmacies and pharmacists shall submit reports required by this rule using forms and formats approved by the director. A pharmacy or pharmacist using an electronic reporting system or systems, to the extent approved by the director, is deemed to comply with the reporting requirements of this rule until such use is no longer considered active by the director.

(D) All health commissioners shall immediately report information received from pharmacies or pharmacists to the director.

(1) Health commissioner reports shall be submitted by telephone or by electronic means approved by the director.

(2) If a pharmacy has submitted an electronic report for over the counter medication sales as authorized by this rule and so advises the health commissioner, no further report is required.

(E) Upon receipt of a request from a health commissioner of the health district having jurisdiction, each pharmacy in the jurisdiction and for each location within the jurisdiction shall:

(1) Within ten business days of receiving such a request, identify an employee or employees of the pharmacy or a pharmacist or pharmacists employed at the pharmacy of who will be the point of contact for purposes of this rule.

(2) Within ten business days advise the health commissioner having jurisdiction of any change in the information of who will be responsible for being the point of contact for purposes of this rule.

(F) In consultation with the Ohio board of pharmacy, the director may publish a list of antibiotics and other medications that are required to be included in reports of significant changes in medication usage required by this rule.

(G) A pharmacy or pharmacist shall report information regarding events as specified in this rule. A pharmacy or pharmacist that does not report events in compliance with this rule is subject to an administrative fine as specified in rule 3701-73-02 of the Administrative Code.

R.C. 119.032 review dates: 04/27/2010 and 04/01/2015
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.232
Rule Amplifies: 3701.232
Prior Effective Dates: 05/20/2005

3701-3-16 [Rescinded]Reporting requirements-trauma centers.

Effective: 08/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 05/07/2014
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: Am. Sub. HB 59 130th GA
Rule Amplifies: Am. Sub. HB 59 130th GA
Prior Effective Dates: 5/20/2005, 2/6/06

3701-3-20 Venereal disease (sexually transmitted diseases - (S.T.D.). [Rescinded].

Rescinded eff 1-1-09

3701-3-21 Who shall be considered a suspected case of venereal disease (S.T.D.). [Rescinded].

Rescinded eff 1-1-09

3701-3-22 Information to be obtained regarding suspected cases. [Rescinded].

Rescinded eff 1-1-09

3701-3-23 Examination of cases; notification regarding suspects. [Rescinded].

Rescinded eff 1-1-09

3701-3-24 Isolation of cases or suspected cases. [Rescinded].

Rescinded eff 1-1-09

3701-3-25 Report of discontinuance of treatment. [Rescinded].

Rescinded eff 1-1-09

3701-3-28 Report of bite of dog or other mammal.

(A) Whenever an individual is bitten by a dog or other non-human mammal, report of such bite shall be made within twenty-four hours to the health commissioner of the district in which such bite occurred. The report herein required shall be made by any health care provider, or by any licensed doctor of veterinary medicine with knowledge of the bite, or by the individual bitten.

(B) Local health districts are required to submit information regarding non-human mammalian bites occurring in their district to the Ohio department of health annually. This report for non-human mammalian bites occurring in the previous calendar year shall be submitted by March first.

Replaces: 3701-3-28

Effective: 07/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.13
Rule Amplifies: 3701.13 , 3701.14 , 3707.06 , 3707.07
Prior Effective Dates: 4/1/64, 3/13/1980, 10/19/03, 1/1/09

3701-3-29 Biting animal to be confined; veterinarian to report.

(A) Biting dog, cat, or ferret.

(1) Whenever it is reported to the health commissioner of a health district that any dog, cat, or ferret has bitten or otherwise exposed an individual to rabies, that dog, cat, or ferret shall be quarantined under an order issued by the health commissioner of the health district in which the bite or exposure occurred.

(a) The dog, cat, or ferret shall be quarantined by its owner or by a harborer, or shall be quarantined in a pound or kennel.

(b) In all cases, said quarantine shall be under the supervision of the health commissioner and shall be at the expense of the owner or harborer.

(c) Any sign of illness in the quarantined dog, cat or ferret must be reported immediately to the health commissioner.

(d) Quarantine shall continue until the health commissioner of the health district in which the bite was inflicted determines pursuant to paragraph (A)(1)(f) of this rule that the dog, cat, or ferret is not afflicted with rabies.

(e) The quarantine period hereby required shall not be less than ten days from the date on which the person was bitten.

(f) If at any time during the quarantine, the health commissioner requires the dog, cat, or ferret to be examined for symptoms of rabies, then the examination shall be by a licensed doctor of veterinary medicine. The licensed doctor of veterinary medicine shall report to the health commissioner the conclusions reached as a result of the examinations. The examination by a licensed doctor of veterinary medicine shall be at the expense of the owner or harborer.

(g) No dog, cat, or ferret shall be released from the required quarantine unless and until it has a current rabies vaccination status as demonstrated by a rabies vaccination certificate signed by a licensed doctor of veterinary medicine.

(2) If any quarantined dog, cat, or ferret dies before the quarantine period expires, then the head of the dog, cat, or ferret shall be submitted to the Ohio department of health's bureau of public health laboratory for rabies examination.

(3) If the owner or harborer of the dog, cat, or ferret is unknown, the health commissioner may direct that the dog, cat, or ferret be humanely killed in which case the head of the dog, cat, or ferret shall be submitted to the Ohio department of health's bureau of public health laboratory for rabies examination.

(B) Other biting mammals including hybrids.

(1) Whenever it is reported to the health commissioner of the health district that any other mammal that is known to transmit rabies has bitten or otherwise exposed an individual to rabies, under an order issued by the health commissioner of the health district in which the bite or exposure occurred, the health commissioner may direct the immediate killing of said mammal by a suitable humane method.

(2) The brain of said mammal shall then be submitted to the Ohio department of health's bureau of public health laboratory for rabies examination.

(C) Any non-human mammal bitten by a known rabid mammal, or that had reasonable probability to have been bitten by a wild carnivorous mammal or bat that is not available for rabies testing shall be regarded as having been exposed to the rabies virus.

(1) Dogs, cats, ferrets not currently vaccinated against the rabies virus or when vaccination cannot be verified shall be humanely killed; or if sufficient justification for preserving the animal exists, the exposed dog, cat, ferret shall be quarantined in strict isolation under an order issued by the health commissioner of the health district in which the bite was inflicted. Isolation in this context refers to confinement in an enclosure that precludes direct contact with people and other animals.

(a) In all cases, said quarantine shall be under the supervision of the health commissioner and shall be at the expense of the owner or harborer. Any signs of illness in the dog, cat, or ferret must be reported immediately to the health commissioner.

(b) The quarantine period shall be for not less than six months. The dog, cat, or ferret shall be vaccinated against rabies by a licensed doctor of veterinary medicine upon entry into quarantine or up to twenty-eight days before the end of the quarantine period required by this paragraph.

(2) Mammals with a current rabies vaccination shall be given a booster rabies vaccination immediately and quarantined under an order issued by the health commissioner of the health district in which the bite was inflicted.

(a) In all cases, said quarantine shall be under the supervision of the health commissioner and shall be at the expense of the owner or harborer. Any signs of illness in the dog, cat, or ferret must be reported immediately to the health commissioner.

(b) The quarantine period shall be for not less than forty-five days.

(3) Whenever it is known by the health comissioner of the health district that any other non-human mammal has been exposed to rabies, the health commissioner, at his or her discretion may direct the quarantine or immediate euthanizing of said mammal by a suitable humane method.

Replaces: 3701-3-29

Effective: 08/04/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.13
Rule Amplifies: 3707.06 , 3707.07 , 3701.13 , 3701.14
Prior Effective Dates: 4/1/1964, 3/13/80, 9/21/81, 10/19/03, 1/1/09

3701-3-30 Report of suspected rabid mammal.

Any licensed doctor of veterinary medicine or other person who examines, treats, owns, harbors, or otherwise cares for any mammal which exhibits symptoms or behavior suggestive of rabies, shall confine and isolate such mammal in suitable quarters and shall report such fact within twenty-four hours after the symptoms or behaviors are observed or known to the health commissioner of the health district wherein such mammal is confined. Such mammal shall be confined until it has been determined that it is not afflicted with rabies. If it is determined that the mammal is rabid, the health commissioner shall take such action as is necessary to prevent the occurrence of rabies in individuals or mammals known or presumed to have been exposed to such rabid mammal.

Effective: 07/01/2014
R.C. 119.032 review dates: 03/26/2014 and 07/01/2019
Promulgated Under: 119.03
Statutory Authority: 3701.13
Rule Amplifies: 3701.13 , 3707.06 , 3707.07
Prior Effective Dates: 4/1/1964, 10/19/03, 1/1/09