This website publishes administrative rules on their effective dates, as designated by the adopting state agencies, colleges, and
universities.
| Rule |
Rule 3701-3-01 | Definitions.
Effective:
October 1, 2025
As used in Chapter 3701-3 of the Administrative
Code: (A) "Antimicrobial" means an
agent that kills microorganisms (including bacteria, fungi, parasites, or
viruses) or suppresses microorganism multiplication or growth. (B) "Arthropod" means an
organism of the phylum Arthropoda, such as an insect, spider, mite or
tick. (C) "Bioterrorism" means the intentional use of
any microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or biological product that may
be engineered as a result of biotechnology, or any naturally occurring or
bioengineered component of a microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or
biological product, to cause death, disease, or other biological malfunction in
a human, animal, plant, or other living organism as a means of influencing the
conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a population. (D) "Board of health" means the board of health
of the city or general health district established by section 3709.01 of the
Revised Code, or the authority having the duties of a board of health in any
city as authorized by section 3709.05 of the Revised Code. (E) "Child care center" means any private home,
institution, or public or private facility in which child care is provided for
one or more infants, toddlers, pre-school children, and school children outside
of school hours, during any part of the twenty-four hour day, by persons other
than the parents or legal guardians of the children in care. (F) "Department" means the Ohio department of
health. (G) "Diarrhea" means three or more loose stools in a
twenty-four hour period. (H) "Director" means the director of health or his or
her designee. (I) "Endemic" means the constant presence of a disease
or infectious agent within a given geographic area. (J) "Epidemic" or "outbreak" means the
occurrence of cases of disease in numbers greater than expected in a particular
population or for a particular period of time. (K) "Event" means an important happening or
occurrence that results from an actual or suspected act of bioterrorism,
epidemic or pandemic disease, established or novel infectious agents, or
biological or chemical toxins. (L) "Exclude" means to bar from
participation. (M) "Food handler" means a person who prepares or
serves food intended for human consumption. (N) "Health care provider"
means any person or government entity that provides health care services to
individuals. "Health care provider" includes, but is not limited to,
hospitals, medical clinics and offices, special care facilities, medical
laboratories, physicians, dentists, physician assistants, registered and
licensed practical nurses, emergency medical service organization personnel,
and ambulance service personnel. (O) "Health district" means a city or general health
district as created by Chapter 3709. of the Revised Code. (P) "Incidence" means the number of new cases of a
disease occurring during a specified interval of time in a defined
population. (Q) "Infected individual" means a person whose body
harbors a specific microorganism capable of producing disease, whether or not
the person is experiencing signs or symptoms of the disease. It does not
include an individual being evaluated for immunity due to vaccination or
previous instances of disease. (R) "Isolation" means the separation of an infected
individual from others during the period of disease communicability in such a
way that prevents, as far as possible, the direct or indirect conveyance of an
infectious agent to those who are susceptible to infection or who may spread
the agent to others. (S) "Mammal" means a warm blooded animal, other
than a human being, usually with hair, that gives birth to live young, which
are fed with milk secreted by the female mammary gland. (T) "Pandemic" means an epidemic disease that is
occurring throughout a very wide area, usually several countries or continents,
and usually affecting a large proportion of the population. (U) "Pan-non-susceptible" means an organism or
isolate that is either resistant or not completely susceptible (intermediate
susceptibility) to all antimicrobials tested. (V) "Period of communicability" means the
interval during which an infected individual or animal is shedding the specific
microorganism of a communicable disease in such a manner that those who are
susceptible could acquire the infection. (W) "Poison prevention and treatment center" or
"center" means an entity designated as a poison prevention and
treatment center by the director of health under section 3701.20 of the Revised
Code. (X) "Quarantine" means the restriction of the
movements or activities of a well individual or animal who has been exposed to
a communicable disease during the period of communicability of that disease and
in such a manner that transmission of the disease may have occurred. The
duration of the quarantine ordered shall be equivalent to the usual incubation
period of the disease to which the susceptible person or animal was
exposed. (Y) "Sensitive occupation" means direct food
handling, direct patient care, the handling of food or provision of direct care
to children in a child care center, or any other occupation which provides
significant opportunity for an infected individual to transmit infectious
disease agents. (Z) "Sexually-transmitted disease" or
"venereal disease" is an infectious disease commonly contracted
through sexual contact such as chancroid, chlamydia, gonococcal infection,
granuloma inguinale, human immunodeficiency virus infection, lymphogranuloma
venereum, or syphilis. (AA) "Surveillance" means, in the public health
service, the systematic collection, analysis, interpretation, and
dissemination, of health data on an on-going basis, to gain knowledge of the
pattern of disease occurrence and potential in a community in order to control
and prevent disease in the community. (BB) "Susceptible person" means a person that,
when exposed to an infectious microorganism, may not possess sufficient
resistance to prevent contracting the infection or disease.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:07 AM
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Rule 3701-3-02 | Diseases to be reported.
Effective:
October 1, 2025
The diseases listed in this rule and classified as
class "A," class "B," and class "C" are declared
to be dangerous to the public health and are reportable. The occurrence of
cases or suspected cases of a disease classified as class "A," class
"B," or class "C" are to be reported, in detail, by health
care providers and laboratories to the board of health on forms as prescribed
and provided by the director and are to be reported in accordance with this
rule and Chapter 3701-3 of the Administrative Code. (A) Due to the severity of disease or the
potential for epidemic spread, diseases of major public health concern are
classified as class "A." The following diseases are classified as
class "A" and are to be reported immediately via telephone in
accordance with rules 3701-3-03, 3701-3-04, and 3701-3-05 of the Administrative
Code: (1) Anthrax; (2) Botulism; (3) Diphtheria; (4) Free-living amoeba
infection; (5) Influenza
"A" - novel virus infection; (6) Measles; (7) Meningococcal
disease; (8) Middle east
respiratory syndrome (MERS); (9) Plague; (10) Rabies, human; (11) Rubella (not
congenital); (12) Severe acute respiratory syndrome
(SARS); (13) Smallpox; (14) Tularemia, inhalation; (15) Viral hemorrhagic fever (VHF),
including Ebola virus disease, Lassa fever, Marburg hemorrhagic fever, and
Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever; and (16) Any unexpected pattern of cases,
suspected cases, deaths or increased incidence of any other disease of major
public health concern, because of the severity of disease or potential for
epidemic spread, which may indicate a newly recognized infectious agent,
outbreak, epidemic, related public health hazard or act of
bioterrorism. (B) Due to the potential for epidemic
spread, diseases of significant public health concern are classified as class
"B." The following diseases are classified as class "B" and
are to be reported in accordance with this rule and rules 3701-3-03, 3701-3-04,
and 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code: (1) Anaplasmosis; (2) Arboviral neuroinvasive and
non-neuroinvasive diseases: (a) Chikungunya virus infection; (b) Eastern equine encephalitis virus disease; (c) LaCrosse virus disease (other California serogroup virus
disease); (d) Powassan virus disease; (e) St. Louis encephalitis virus disease; (f) West Nile virus infection; (g) Western equine encephalitis virus disease; (h) Yellow Fever; (i) Zika virus disease; (j) Other Arthropod-borne diseases; (3) Babesiosis; (4) Brucellosis; (5) Campylobacteriosis; (6) Candida auris; (7) Carbapenemase-producing
organisms: (8) Chancroid; (9) Chlamydia trachomatis
infections; (10) Cholera; (11) Coccidioidomycosis; (12) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
(CJD); (13) Cronobacter,
invasive infection in infants less than twelve months of age; (14) Cryptosporidiosis; (15) Cyclosporiasis; (16) Dengue; (17) E. coli O157:H7 and Shiga
toxin-producing E. coli (STEC); (18) Ehrlichiosis; (19) Giardiasis; (20) Gonorrhea (Neisseria
gonorrhoeae); (21) Haemophilus influenzae (invasive
disease); (22) Hantavirus; (23) Hepatitis A; (24) Hepatitis B
(non-perinatal); (25) Hepatitis B (perinatal); (26) Hepatitis C
(non-perinatal); (27) Hepatitis C (perinatal); (28) Hepatitis D (delta
hepatitis); (29) Hepatitis E; (30) Legionnaires'
disease; (31) Leprosy (Hansen
disease); (32) Leptospirosis; (33) Listeriosis; (34) Lyme disease; (35) Malaria; (36) Melioidosis; (37) Meningitis, bacterial; (38) Mumps; (39) Mpox; (40) Pertussis; (41) Poliomyelitis (including
vaccine-associated cases); (42) Psittacosis; (43) Q fever; (44) Rubella (congenital); (45) Salmonella Paratyphi
infection; (46) Salmonella Typhi
infection (typhoid fever); (47) Salmonellosis; (48) Shigellosis; (49) Spotted Fever Rickettsiosis,
including Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF); (50) Staphylococcus aureus, with
resistance or intermediate resistance to vancomycin (VRSA, VISA); (51) Streptococcal disease, group A,
invasive (IGAS); (52) Streptococcal disease, group B, in
newborn; (53) Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
(STSS); (54) Streptococcus pneumoniae, invasive
disease (ISP); (55) Syphilis; (56) Tetanus; (57) Trichinellosis; (58) Tuberculosis (TB): (a) Active disease; (b) Latent infection in a child two years of age or
younger; (59) Tularemia,
non-inhalation; (60) Varicella; (61) Vibriosis; and (62) Yersiniosis. (C) The following are classified as class
"C" and are to be reported by the end of the next business day in
accordance with this rule and rules 3701-3-03, 3701-3-04, and 3701-3-05 of the
Administrative Code unless paragraph (C)(7) of this rule applies - outbreak,
unusual incidence, or epidemic of other infectious diseases from the following
sources: (1) Community; (2) Foodborne; (3) Healthcare-associated; (4) Institutional; (5) Waterborne;
and (6) Zoonotic; (7) If the outbreak,
unusual incidence, or epidemic, including but not limited to, histoplasmosis,
pediculosis, scabies, and staphylococcal infections, has an unexpected pattern
of cases, suspected cases, deaths, or increased incidence of disease that is of
a major public health concern pursuant to paragraph (A)(16) of this rule, then
such outbreak, unusual incidence, or epidemic is to be reported in accordance
with paragraph (A) of rule 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:07 AM
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Rule 3701-3-02.1 | Reporting of occupational diseases.
(A) Every physician attending on or called in to visit a patient whom the physician believes to be suffering from any of the occupational diseases or occupationally related ailments listed in paragraph (B) of this rule shall submit a report to the director of health within forty-eight hours from the time of first attending the patient. This report shall be made on, or in conformity with, the standard schedule blanks which the director is required to provide physicians pursuant to section 3701.26 of the Revised Code and shall contain the following information: (1) The name, address, and occupation of the patient; (2) The name, address, and business of the patient's employer; (3) The nature of the disease or ailment; and (4) Name, address and telephone number of the physician. The mailing of the report, within the time required by this paragraph shall constitute compliance with section 3701.25 the Revised Code and this rule. (B) The following occupational diseases and ailments are required to be reported: (1) Poisoning from phosphorous, brass, arsenic, mercury, wood alcohol or their compounds; (2) Compressed air illness; (3) Poisoning from lead and cadmium.
Last updated August 29, 2025 at 2:20 PM
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Rule 3701-3-02.2 | Air- and blood-borne diseases reasonably likely to be transmitted to emergency medical services workers.
(A) Section 3701.248 of the Revised Code allows an emergency medical services worker to ask a health care facility or coroner to notify them of the results of tests for certain diseases, if the worker believes that he or she had a significant exposure through contact with a patient. The diseases subject to this procedure are contagious or infectious diseases that are specified as reasonably likely to be transmitted by air or blood during the normal course of an emergency medical services worker's duties. The diseases listed in paragraph (B) of this rule are specified for purposes of section 3701.248 of the Revised Code. (B) The following diseases are specified as reasonably likely to be transmitted by air or blood during the normal course of an emergency medical worker's duties: (1) Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever; (2) Diphtheria; (3) Ebola hemorrhagic fever; (4) Fifth disease (human parvovirus infection); (5) Hansen disease (leprosy); (6) Acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B virus; (7) Acute or chronic infection with hepatitis C virus; (8) Infection with hepatitis D virus (delta hepatitis); (9) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, including acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS); (10) Infection with human t-lymphotropic virus (HTLV-1 and HTLV-2); (11) Lassa fever; (12) Leishmaniasis, visceral (Kala-Azar); (13) Leptospirosis; (14) Marburg hemorrhagic fever; (15) Measles (rubeola); (16) Meningococcal disease (Neisseria meningitidis); (17) Mumps (infectious parotitis); (18) Pertussis (whooping cough); (19) Pneumonic plague (Yersinia pestis); (20) Rabies; (21) Rubella (German measles); (22) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) (23) Tuberculosis; and (24) Varicella (herpes zoster) infection, including chickenpox and shingles.
Last updated August 29, 2025 at 2:20 PM
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Rule 3701-3-03 | Reportable disease notification.
Effective:
October 1, 2025
(A) A health care provider with
knowledge of a case or suspect case of a disease which is required by law to be
reported, including all class "A", class "B", and class
"C" categories of disease designated as reportable under rule
3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code, is to submit a case report in the manner
set forth in rule 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code. (1) A health care
provider may submit electronic reports in the manner approved by the
director. (2) Unless otherwise
demonstrated, a health care provider who submits electronic reports in the
manner approved by the director shall be presumed compliant with section
3701.23 of the Revised Code and rules 3701-3-02, 3701-3-04, and 3701-3-05 of
the Administrative Code. (B) Reports of cases and suspect cases
will include, but not be limited to, the following: (1) Case or suspect case
information: name, diagnosis or suspected diagnosis, date of birth, sex, race,
ethnicity, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip
code. (2) Health care provider
information: name, telephone number, and street address including city, state,
and zip code. (3) Supplementary
information as needed to complete official surveillance forms provided or set
forth by the director. (C) Any individual having knowledge of a
person suffering from a disease suspected of being communicable is authorized
to report to public health authorities all known facts relating to the case or
incident.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:08 AM
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Rule 3701-3-04 | Laboratory result reporting.
Effective:
October 1, 2025
(A) The person in charge of any
laboratory that examines specimens of human origin for evidence of diseases
designated as reportable by rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code is to
report all positive results of such examinations in the manner set forth in
rule 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code. (B) A positive result of a laboratory
examination for a reportable disease is considered reason to suspect that a
person is infected by that disease. Upon receipt of a laboratory report of a
positive result for a reportable disease, the city or general health district
in which the suspect case resides is to make an inquiry through the appropriate
health care provider to determine if the suspected case exists. (C) A laboratory report will include, but
not be limited to, the following: (1) Case information:
name, date of birth, sex, race, ethnicity, and street address including city,
state, and zip code. (2) Laboratory test
information: specimen identification number, specimen collection date, specimen
type, test name, test result, and if applicable, the organism and
serotype. (3) Health care provider
information: name, telephone number, street address including city, state, and
postal zip code. (D) Upon isolation of the following
organisms, an isolate is to be submitted to the Ohio department of health
public health laboratory: (1) Candida
auris; (2) Carbapenem-resistant
organisms; (3) Haemophilus
influenzae isolated from normally sterile body sites in a patient aged less
than five years; (4) Legionella
spp.; (5) Listeria
monocytogenes isolated from normally sterile body sites; (6) Mycobacterium
tuberculosis complex; (7) Neisseria
meningitidis isolated from normally sterile body sites; (8) Pan-non-susceptible
organisms; (9) Salmonella
spp; (10) Shiga-toxin
producing Escherichia coli (including O157); (11) Vancomycin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus; (12) Vibrio
spp. (E) The following patient specimens are
to be submitted to the Ohio department of health laboratory: (1) Stool and normally
sterile body site specimens that have tested positive by a culture independent
diagnostic test for the organisms listed in paragraph (D) of rule 3701-3-04 of
the Administrative Code, if the laboratory does not perform reflex culture
testing; (2) Stool specimens in
transport medium that have tested positive by a culture independent diagnostic
test for norovirus infection, upon request of the local health district or the
department.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:08 AM
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Rule 3701-3-05 | Time to report.
Effective:
September 16, 2016
Reports by health care providers, as specified in
rule 3701-3-03 of the Administrative Code, and reports by laboratories of
positive results, as specified in rule 3701-3-04 of the Administrative Code,
shall be provided in the manner set forth by the director according to the
following time and method of reporting: (A) Cases, suspect cases, and positive
laboratory results for diseases specified as class "A" in paragraph
(A) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall be initially and
immediately provided by telephone to the local health jurisdiction in which the
case or suspected case resides, or if the residence is unknown, to the Ohio
department of health. Follow up reports shall be provided in the manner set
forth by the director. If cases, suspect cases, and positive laboratory results
for diseases specified as class "A" are reported to a local health
district, such local health jurisdiction shall immediately notify the Ohio
department of health in the manner set forth by the director. (B) Case and suspect case reports and
reports of positive laboratory results for diseases specified as class
"B"in paragraph (B) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code
shall be provided by the end of the next business day. (C) Reports related to an actual or
suspected outbreak, unusual incident, or epidemic of any disease specified as
class "C" in paragraph (C) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative
Code shall be provided by the end of the next business day, unless the
unexpected pattern of cases, suspect cases, deaths, or increased incidence of
disease is of major public health concern pursuant to paragraph (A) of rule
3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code, then such reports shall be made according
to paragraph (A) of this rule.
Last updated August 29, 2025 at 2:20 PM
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Rule 3701-3-06 | Reporting to department.
Effective:
September 16, 2016
A board of health that receives a report of a case,
suspected case or positive laboratory result pursuant to rules 3701-3-02,
3701-3-03, 3701-3-04, and 3701-3-05 of the Administrative Code shall report the
same report to the department as follows: (A) Diseases specified as class
"A" in paragraph (A) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code
shall be reported by telephone immediately after the existence of such case or
suspect case is known to the board of health. (B) Diseases specified as class
"B"in paragraph (B) of rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code
shall be reported by the end of the next business day after the existence of
such case or suspect case or positive laboratory result is known to the board
of health. (C) Outbreaks, unusual incidence, or
epidemics of diseases specified as class "C" in paragraph (C) of rule
3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code shall be reported by the end of the next
business day after the outbreak, unusual incidence, or epidemic is known to the
board of health.
Last updated August 29, 2025 at 2:20 PM
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Rule 3701-3-07 | Reporting Requirements-Illnesses and Health Conditions.
Effective:
October 1, 2025
(A) As used in this rule: (1) "Dedicated
emergency department" means any department or facility of a hospital,
regardless of whether it is located on or off the main hospital campus, which
meets at least one of the following requirements: (a) It is held out to the public (by name, posted signs,
advertising, or other means) as a place that provides care for emergency
medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled
appointment; or (b) During the calendar year immediately preceding the
calendar year in which a determination under this section is being made, based
on a representative sample of patient visits that occurred during that calendar
year, it provides at least one-third of all its outpatient visits for the
treatment of emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without requiring
a previously scheduled appointment. (2) "Health
condition" means any physiological, mental, or psychological condition or
impairment, as specified in this rule. (B) A dedicated emergency department is
to report, by the end of the next business day, symptom data related to
illnesses and health conditions (e.g., chief complaint). A dedicated emergency
department that is not using an electronic reporting system to report under
this paragraph is also to immediately report the following information by
telephone or electronically: (1) Whenever the
dedicated emergency department identifies a cluster of patients with a higher
than expected rate of symptoms or chief complaints related to fever or
respiratory or gastrointestinal illnesses or health conditions; (2) Significant changes
in expected patterns of symptoms or chief complaints related to fever or
respiratory or gastrointestinal illnesses or health conditions that may be
caused by bioterrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or established or novel
infectious agents or biological toxins posing a risk of human fatality or
disability; or (3) An unexpected
increase in the number of patients with the same or similar symptoms or chief
complaint related to fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal illnesses or
health conditions. (C) Health care providers, as defined in
section 3701.23 of the Revised Code, are to report the following health
conditions according to paragraph (B) of rule 3701-3-05 of the Administrative
Code and boards of health are to report according to paragraph (B) of rule
3701-3-06 of the Administrative Code: (1) Acute flaccid
myelitis (AFM); (2) Hemolytic uremic
syndrome (HUS); (3) Hospitalizations
of: (a) Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19); (b) Influenza; (c) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV); (4) Influenza-associated
pediatric mortality; (5) Toxic shock syndrome
(TSS). (D) A health care provider, including a
dedicated emergency department, is to submit data or reports required by this
rule using forms and formats approved by the director. A health care provider
using an electronic reporting system or systems, including the use of a
third-party organization on behalf of the health care provider or dedicated
emergency department, to the extent approved by the director, is deemed to
comply with the reporting requirements of this rule until such use is no longer
considered approved by the director.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:08 AM
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Rule 3701-3-08 | Release of patient's medical records.
Effective:
October 1, 2025
Any person, hospital, clinic, agency or other
institution or facility providing care or treatment to an individual suffering
from a communicable disease which is to be reported under Chapter 3701. of the
Revised Code and the rules adopted by the director of health, or a disease that
the director requires special inquiry be made under sections 3701.13 and
3701.14 of the Revised Code, will, upon request by the director or health
commissioner or their designees, provide access to the patient's medical
record during an investigation of such disease.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:08 AM
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Rule 3701-3-10 | Approval of human immunodeficiency virus tests.
(A) In approving tests to be used to determine whether an individual has human immunodeficiency virus infection under division (B)(1) of section 3701.241 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall consider: (1) Whether the test has been approved by the United States food and drug administration. (2) The recommendations of the United States centers for disease control and prevention. (B) The director shall define a confirmed positive test result as: (1) Two or more reactive enzyme immunoassay tests; (2) A positive culture of the human immunodeficiency virus; (3) A positive reaction to an human immunodeficiency virus antigen test licensed by the United States food and drug administration; (4) Identification of the human immunodeficiency virus by the use of nucleic acid amplification probe to detect the presence of human immunodeficiency virus; (5) The director may define other confirmed positive test results after consideration of the recommendations of the United States centers for disease control and prevention. (C) In developing guidelines for interpreting test results, the director shall consider interpretation criteria established by the United States centers for disease control and prevention.
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Rule 3701-3-11 | Requirements related to human immunodeficiency virus testing.
Effective:
October 30, 2010
(A) A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test may be performed by or on the order of the health care provider who, in the exercise of the provider's professional judgment and within the provider's scope of practice, determines the test to be necessary for providing diagnosis and treatment to the individual to be tested if the individual or the individual's parent or guardian has given consent. Prior to performing or ordering an HIV test, the health care provider shall inform the individual to be tested of the individual's right to an anonymous test as set forth in section 3701.242 of the Revised Code and paragraph (C) of this rule. (B) Pursuant to division (B) of section 3701.242 of the Revised Code, a minor may consent to be given an HIV test. The consent is not subject to disaffirmance because of minority. The parents or guardian of a minor giving consent under this paragraph are not responsible for payments for an HIV test given to the minor without the consent of a parent or the guardian. (C) Any individual seeking an HIV test shall have the right, on the individual's request, to an anonymous test. A health care facility or health care provider that does not provide anonymous testing shall refer the individual requesting an anonymous test to a site where anonymous testing is available. (D) If an individual tests positive for HIV, the health care provider who performed or ordered the test shall provide post-test counseling. Post-test counseling is suggested for all individuals seeking testing. Post-test counseling may be verbal or in writing and shall included, but is not limited to, the following: (1) An explanation of the HIV test result. If, at the time of the HIV test, the result is preliminarily positive, the health care provider must explain the next step to confirm the test result; (2) The nature of HIV disease; (3) A list of resources for medical treatment, social services and, when necessary, a referral for further counseling to help that individual cope with the emotional consequences of learning of the test result; (4) The individual will be provided information about the importance of following safer sex practices to protect themselves from sexually transmitted diseases, as well as how to protect others from being infected; and (5) The individual will be provided information about Ohio's HIV disclosure laws. (E) The requirements of paragraphs (B) to (D) of this rule do not apply to the performance of an HIV test in any of the following circumstances: (1) When the test is performed in a medical emergency by a nurse or physician and the test results are medically necessary to avoid or minimize an immediate danger to the health or safety of the individual to be tested or another individual. Post-test counseling shall be given to the individual if the individual received an HIV positive test result as soon as possible after the emergency is over; (2) When the test is performed for the purpose of research if the researcher does not know and cannot determine the identity of the individual tested; (3) When the test is performed by a person who procures, processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from deceased person donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code, if the test is medically necessary to ensure that the body part is acceptable for its intended purpose; (4) When the test is performed on a person incarcerated in a penal institution if the head of the institution has determined, based on good cause, that a test is necessary; or (5) When the test is performed on an individual after the infection control committee of a health care facility, or other body of a health care facility performing a similar function determines that a health care provider, emergency medical service worker, or peace officer, when rendering health or emergency care to an individual, has sustained significant exposure to the body fluids that are known to transmit HIV of that individual, and the individual has refused to give consent for testing. (F) The consent of the individual to be tested is not required, and the individual or guardian may not elect to have an anonymous test, when the test is ordered by a court in connection with a criminal investigation.
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Rule 3701-3-12 | AIDS, ARC, and HIV test reporting.
(A) As used in this rule: (1) "AIDS" has the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code. (2) "ARC" is a historic term having the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code. (3) "A CD4 count" means a count of lymphocytes containing the CD4 epitope as determined by the results of lymphocyte phenotyping. (4) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code. (5) "Health care provider" has the same meaning as in section 3701.23 of the Revised Code. (6) "HIV" has the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code. (7) "HIV infection" means a disease of the human immune system caused by infection with the human immunodeficiency virus. (8) "HIV test" has the same meaning as in section 3701.24 of the Revised Code. (9) "HIV viral load" means concentration of HIV virus in blood. (B) Persons required to report cases of AIDS, ARC, HIV, confirmed positive tests for HIV, and HIV infections pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of section 3701.24 of the Revised Code and this rule are as follows: (1) Health care providers shall report every case of HIV infection, including AIDS, for persons under their treatment and care. In an institutional or health care facility setting, a designated agent, including, but not limited to, an infection preventionist may make the report for the diagnosing or treating health care provider. (2) The individual in charge of the laboratory shall report all positive or repeatedly reactive results from antigen detection, nucleic acid detection, detection of antibody confirmed with a supplemental test, or positive cultures used in the diagnosis of HIV infection, CD4 counts and percentages when performed to monitor the progression of HIV disease, and detectable and undetectable viral load results when performed to monitor the efficacy of HIV treatment. If a second laboratory is used for additional or supplemental HIV testing, the person in charge of the laboratory first receiving the specimen shall report the results of the supplemental testing. (C) Every health care provider attending a newborn infant or child born to an HIV infected mother shall report every instance of perinatal exposure to HIV and any subsequent test results on every such exposed newborn infant or child until such time that either an HIV infection or a sero status that is negative is confirmed. In an institutional or health care facility setting, a designated agent, including, but not limited to, an infection preventionist, may make the report for the diagnosing or treating health care provider. (D) Persons designated by paragraphs (B) and (C) of this rule shall report every case of HIV infection, including AIDS, every instance of perinatal exposure to HIV, and HIV test as described in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule to the department of health as follows (in each county the director shall designate the health commissioner of a health district in the county to receive the reports): (1) Health care provider shall provide the following information: (a) Case information: name, diagnosis, date of birth, sex, ethnicity, race, and street address including city, state, and zip code. (b) Health care provider information: name, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip code. (c) Laboratory test information: specimen collection date, specimen type, test name, test result, and reference range, where applicable. (d) Supplementary information as needed to complete official surveillance forms provided or set forth by the director. (e) A health care provider may submit electronic reports in the manner approved by the director. (2) Person in charge of a laboratory shall provide the following information: (a) Case information: name, diagnosis, date of birth, sex, ethnicity, race, and street address including city, state, and zip code. (b) Health care provider information: name, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip code. (c) Laboratory information: name, telephone number, and street address including city, state, and zip code. (d) Laboratory test information: specimen collection date, specimen type, test name, test result, and reference range, where applicable. (e) A laboratory may submit electronic reports in the manner approved by the director. (3) Health care providers and laboratories shall report in the following manner: (a) Persons designated in paragph (B)(1) of this rule shall report to the local health district in which the case resides, or if the residence is unknown, to the Ohio department of health no later five calendar days from the date of diagnosis or specimen collection date, whichever is later. (b) Persons designated in paragraph (B)(2) of this rule shall report to the local health district in which the case resides, or if the residence is unknown, to the Ohio department of health no later than five calendar days from the test result. (c) Persons designated in paragraph (C) of this rule shall report to the local health district in which the infant was born, or if unknown, to the Ohio department of health no later than five calendar days from the infant's date of birth.
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Rule 3701-3-13 | Isolation requirement.
Effective:
October 1, 2025
A person infected with one of the following
specified diseases or conditions is tobe isolated as set forth in this
rule: (A) Amebiasis: a person with amebiasis
who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is tobe
excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may
return when chemotherapy has been completed and diarrhea has
ceased. (B) Campylobacteriosis: a person with
campylobacteriosis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive
occupation is to be excluded from the child care center or work in the
sensitive occupation and may return when the following conditions are
met: (1) A child may return to
a child care center after his or her diarrhea has ceased. (2) A person may return
to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided the
person's duties do not include food handling. (3) A food handler may return to work
only after diarrhea has ceased and one of the following conditions are
met: (a) Forty-eight hours of effective antimicrobial therapy;
or (b) Two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are negative for
Campylobacter. (C) Chickenpox: a person with chickenpox
is to be isolated, including exclusion from school, child care center, and
public places until the sixth day after onset of rash, or until all lesions are
dry. Contagiousness may be prolonged in patients with altered immunity. Persons
with chickenpox are to avoid contact with susceptible persons. (D) Cholera: a person with cholera who
attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is to be
excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may
return when the following conditions are met: (1) A child may return to
a child care center after diarrhea has ceased. (2) A person may return
to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided that his
or her duties do not include food handling. (3) A food handler may return to work
after diarrhea has ceased and two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are
negative for Vibrio cholerae. (E) Conjunctivitis, purulent: a person
with purulent conjunctivitis who attends or works in a child care center is to
be excluded from the child care center and may return twenty-four hours after
the initiation of effective antimicrobial therapy. (F) Cryptosporidiosis: a person with
cryptosporidiosis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive
occupation is to be excluded from the child care center or work in the
sensitive occupation and may return when the following conditions are
met: (1) The child may return
to the child care center after diarrhea has ceased. (2) A person may return
to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided that his
or her duties do not include food handling. (3) A food handler may return to work
after diarrhea has ceased and after three consecutive follow-up stool specimens
are negative for Cryptosporidium. (G) Cyclosporiasis: a person with
cyclosporiasis who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive
occupation is to be excluded from the child care center or work in the
sensitive occupation and may return after diarrhea has ceased and effective
antimicrobial therapy has begun. (H) Diarrhea, infectious or of unknown
cause: a person with diarrhea, of infectious or unknown cause, who attends a
child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is to be excluded from the
child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return only after
diarrhea has ceased. A person with infectious diarrhea of known cause is to be
isolated in accordance with the provisions of the rule set forth for the
specified disease. (I) Diphtheria: a person with diphtheria
is to be isolated until two cultures, from both throat and nose, and
additionally, in the case of cutaneous diphtheria, a culture from skin lesions,
are negative for diphtheria bacilli. Cultures are to be taken not less than
twenty-four hours apart, and not less than twenty-four hours after cessation of
antimicrobial therapy. If culturing is unavailable or impractical, isolation
may be ended after fourteen days of effective antimicrobial
therapy. (J) Escherichia coli (E. coli) O157:H7,
other enterohemorrhagic (Shiga toxin-producing) E. coli or hemolytic uremic
syndrome (HUS): a person with Escherichia coli (E. coli) O157:H7, other
enterohemorrhagic (Shiga toxin-producing) E. coli or hemolytic uremic syndrome
(HUS) who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is to
be excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and
may return after his or her diarrhea has ceased and after two consecutive
follow-up stool specimens are negative for E. coli O157:H7 or other
enterohemorrhagic (Shiga toxin-producing) E. coli. (K) Giardiasis: a person with giardiasis
who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is to be
excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may
return after diarrhea has ceased and one of the following conditions have been
met: (1) Seventy-two hours of
effective antimicrobial therapy; or (2) Three consecutive
follow-up stool specimens are negative for Giardia. (L) Hepatitis A: a person with hepatitis
A who attends a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is to be
excluded from the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation until
ten days after initial onset of symptoms. (M) Measles: a person with measles is to
be isolated, including exclusion from school or child care center, for four
days following the onset of rash. Contagiousness may be prolonged in patients
with altered immunity. (N) Meningitis, aseptic, and viral
meningoencephalitis, but not including arthropod-borne disease: a person with
aseptic meningitis or viral meningoencephalitis is to be excluded from school
or child care center until he or she is afebrile. (O) Meningococcal disease: a person with
meningococcal disease is to be isolated until twenty-four hours after the
initiation of effective antimicrobial therapy. (P) MERS (middle east respiratory
syndrome): a person with confirmed or suspected MERS is to be placed in
airborne isolation until no longer considered infectious. (Q) Mumps: a person with mumps is to be isolated, including
exclusion from school or child care center, for five days after the onset of
parotid swelling. (R) Pertussis (whooping cough): a person
with pertussis, who is not treated with effective antimicrobial therapy, is to
be isolated, including exclusion from school or child care center, until three
weeks after the onset of paroxysms. If effective antimicrobial therapy is
given, the person is to be isolated for five days after initiation of
antimicrobial therapy. (S) Plague, pneumonic: a person with
pneumonic plague is to be placed in droplet isolation until completion of
forty-eight hours of effective antimicrobial therapy. (T) Rubella: a person with rubella is to
be isolated, including exclusion from school or child care center, for seven
days after the onset of the rash. Persons with congenital rubella are to be
isolated until they are one year old unless nasopharyngeal and urine cultures
after three months of age are repeatedly negative for rubella. (U) Salmonella Paratyphi infection: a
person who works in a sensitive occupation is to be excluded from work and may
return after the person is asymptomatic and after three consecutive follow-up
stool specimens are negative for Salmonella Paratyphi. (V) Salmonella Typhi infection: a person
who works in a sensitive occupation is to be excluded from work and may return
after the person is asymptomatic and after three consecutive follow-up stool
specimens are negative for Salmonella Typhi. (W) Salmonellosis: a person with salmonellosis who attends
a child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is to be excluded from
the child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return when
the following conditions are met: (1) The child may return
to the child care center after diarrhea has ceased. (2) A person may return
to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided that his
or her duties do not include food handling. (3) A person who is a food handler may
return to work after diarrhea has ceased and after two consecutive follow-up
stool specimens are negative for Salmonella. (X) SARS (severe acute respiratory distress syndrome): a
person with confirmed or suspected SARS is to be placed in airborne isolation
until no longer considered infectious. (Y) Scabies: a person with the manifestation of scabies
known as "crusted scabies" is to be isolated until the mite can no
longer be demonstrated on a scabies preparation following treatment with an
effective scabicide. (Z) Shigellosis: a person with shigellosis who attends a
child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is to be excluded from the
child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return if
diarrhea has ceased and after two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are
negative for Shigella. (AA) Smallpox: a person with confirmed or suspected smallpox
is to be placed in airborne isolation in a facility designated by the director.
The patient's release from the facility can occur when all scabs have
fallen off. (BB) Streptococcal infection: a person with a streptococcal
infection is to be excluded from school or child care center for twelve hours
after the initiation of effective antimicrobial therapy. (CC) Tuberculosis (TB): a person with infectious
tuberculosis is to be isolated according to Chapter 3701-15 of the
Administrative Code until the person has met standards outlined in rule
3701-15-03 of the Administrative Code to be considered non-infectious and the
local authorized TB authority, as set out in section 339.72 of the Revised
Code, or his or her designee approves that person's removal from
isolation. (DD) Typhus: a louse infested person with typhus is to be
isolated until twenty-four hours after application of an effective pediculicide
for body lice and clothing and environment are free of body lice. (EE) Viral hemorrhagic fever (VHF): a person with confirmed
or suspected viral hemorrhagic fever is to be placed in airborne isolation
until no longer considered infectious. (FF) Yellow fever: a person with confirmed or suspected
yellow fever is to be isolated to prevent access of mosquitoes to the patient
for at least five days after onset of disease. (GG) Yersiniosis: a person with yersiniosis who attends a
child care center or works in a sensitive occupation is to be excluded from the
child care center or work in the sensitive occupation and may return when the
following conditions are met: (1) A child may return to
the child care center after diarrhea has ceased. (2) A person may return
to work in a sensitive occupation after diarrhea has ceased, provided that his
or her duties do not include food handling. (3) A food handler may return to work
after diarrhea has ceased and two consecutive follow-up stool specimens are
negative for Yersinia.
Last updated October 1, 2025 at 8:09 AM
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Rule 3701-3-14 | Reporting requirements--poison control prevention and treatment centers and other health-related entities.
Effective:
November 1, 2015
(A) For the purpose of this rule (1) "Biological or chemical toxins" mean poisonous compounds produced by a microorganism or a poisonous chemical compound that pose a risk of human fatality or disability. (2) "Novel infectious agents" mean agents that are unusual that pose a risk of human fatality or disability. (3) "Other health-related entity" means an entity that employs health care providers, but that does not have an obligation to report events to the health district having jurisdiction in accordance with the requirements of Chapters 3701. and 3707. of the Revised Code. (B) A poison control prevention and treatment center or other health-related entity shall report the following events: (1) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of telephone inquiries or requests to provide information about poison prevention and treatment and available services; (2) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of requests to provide specialized treatment, consultation, information, and educational programs to health care professionals and the public; (3) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of requests for information on established or novel infectious agents or biological or chemical toxins posing a risk of human fatality or disability that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused by bioterrorism. (C) Unless provided otherwise, all reports required by paragraph (B) of this rule shall be submitted to both the Ohio department of health and the health commissioner of the health district having jurisdiction over the event. Poison control prevention and treatment centers and other health-related entities shall immediately report an event as specified in rule 3701-3-02 of the Administrative Code, to the extent known or suspected, or upon the request from the director in the manner specified in paragraph (B) of rule 3701-3-03 of the Administrative Code. (D) As required by division (C) of section 3701.201 of the Revised Code, poison control prevention and treatment centers and other health-related entities shall report information regarding events as specified in this rule.
Last updated August 29, 2025 at 2:20 PM
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Rule 3701-3-15 | Reporting Requirements-Pharmacies or Pharmacists.
(A) As used in this rule: (1) "Pharmacist" means an individual licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of pharmacy as a pharmacist. (2) "Pharmacy," means the same as defined in division (A) of section 4729.01. of the Revised Code. (3) "Prescription" means the same as defined in division (H) of section 4729.01. of the Revised Code. (4) "Significant changes" means observations or occurrences of or related to medication usage that is, based on professional experience and judgment, too closely correlated to be attributed to chance. (5) "Unexpected increase" means, based on past experience, an unforeseen change in the types, urgency, or volume of sales, inquiries or requests specified in this rule. (B) All pharmacies and pharmacists shall immediately report information by telephone or electronically to the health commissioner of the health district having jurisdiction: (1) Any prescription for medication used to treat a disease that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused by bioterrorism, or (2) Significant changes in medication usage that may be caused by bioterrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or established or novel infectious agents or biological toxins posing a risk of human fatality or disability, or (3) An unexpected increase in: (a) The number of prescriptions issued for antibiotics; (b) The number of prescriptions issued for medications to treat fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal complaints; (c) The sales of or the number of requests for over-the-counter medication to treat fever, respiratory, or gastrointestinal complaints. (C) Pharmacies and pharmacists shall submit reports required by this rule using forms and formats approved by the director. A pharmacy or pharmacist using an electronic reporting system or systems, to the extent approved by the director, is deemed to comply with the reporting requirements of this rule until such use is no longer considered active by the director. (D) All health commissioners shall immediately report information received from pharmacies or pharmacists to the director. (1) Health commissioner reports shall be submitted by telephone or by electronic means approved by the director. (2) If a pharmacy has submitted an electronic report for over the counter medication sales as authorized by this rule and so advises the health commissioner, no further report is required. (E) Upon receipt of a request from a health commissioner of the health district having jurisdiction, each pharmacy in the jurisdiction and for each location within the jurisdiction shall: (1) Within ten business days of receiving such a request, identify an employee or employees of the pharmacy or a pharmacist or pharmacists employed at the pharmacy of who will be the point of contact for purposes of this rule. (2) Within ten business days advise the health commissioner having jurisdiction of any change in the information of who will be responsible for being the point of contact for purposes of this rule. (F) In consultation with the Ohio board of pharmacy, the director may publish a list of antibiotics and other medications that are required to be included in reports of significant changes in medication usage required by this rule. (G) A pharmacy or pharmacist shall report information regarding events as specified in this rule. A pharmacy or pharmacist that does not report events in compliance with this rule is subject to an administrative fine as specified in rule 3701-73-02 of the Administrative Code.
Last updated August 29, 2025 at 2:20 PM
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Rule 3701-3-16 | Reporting Drug Overdose.
(A) As used in this rule: (1) "Dedicated emergency department" means any
department or facility of a hospital, regardless of whether it is located on or
off the main hospital campus, which meets at least one of the following
requirements: (a) It is held out to the
public (by name, posted signs, advertising, or other means) as a place that
provides care for emergency medical conditions on an urgent basis without
requiring a previously scheduled appointment; or (b) During the calendar
year immediately preceding the calendar year in which a determination under
this rule is being made, based on a representative sample of patient visits
that occurred during that calendar year, it provides at least one-third of all
its outpatient visits for the treatment of emergency medical conditions on an
urgent basis without requiring a previously scheduled appointment. (2) "Drug overdose" means a patient diagnosed
with a nonfatal poisoning as set forth in appendix A to this rule. (B) A
dedicated emergency department is to report drug overdoses as set forth by the
director in appendix A to this rule within two business days of diagnosis. A
third-party organization may report as described in this rule on behalf of a
dedicated emergency department. (C) A
dedicated emergency department, or a third-party organization on behalf of the
dedicated emergency department, is to submit reports required by paragraph (B)
of this rule using forms and formats approved by the director. A dedicated
emergency department using an electronic reporting system or systems, including
third-party system reporting on behalf of a dedicated emergency department, to
the extent approved by the director, is deemed to comply with the reporting
requirements of this rule. (D) Information reported pursuant to this rule is protected
health information subject to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code.
Last updated April 8, 2024 at 8:29 AM
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Rule 3701-3-28 | Report of bite of dog or other mammal.
Effective:
August 1, 2024
(A) Whenever an individual is bitten by a
dog or other non-human mammal, report of such bite will be made within
twenty-four hours to the health commissioner of the district in which such bite
occurred. The report herein required is to be made by any health care provider,
or by any licensed doctor of veterinary medicine with knowledge of the bite, or
by the individual bitten. (B) Local health districts are required
to submit information regarding non-human mammalian bites occurring in their
district to the Ohio department of health annually. This report for non-human
mammalian bites occurring in the previous calendar year is to be submitted by
March first.
Last updated August 1, 2024 at 7:55 AM
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Rule 3701-3-29 | Biting animal to be confined; veterinarian to report.
Effective:
August 1, 2024
(A) Biting dog, cat, or
ferret. (1) Whenever it is
reported to the health commissioner of a health district that any dog, cat, or
ferret has bitten or otherwise exposed an individual to rabies, that dog, cat,
or ferret will be quarantined under an order issued by the health commissioner
of the health district in which the bite or exposure occurred. (a) The dog, cat, or ferret will be quarantined by its owner or
by a harborer, or will be quarantined in a pound, shelter, or
kennel. (b) In all cases, said quarantine will be under the supervision
of the health commissioner and is to be at the expense of the owner or
harborer. (c) Any sign of illness in the quarantined dog, cat or ferret
must be reported immediately to the health commissioner. (d) Quarantine will continue until the health commissioner of the
health district in which the bite was inflicted determines pursuant to
paragraph (A)(1)(f) of this rule that the dog, cat, or ferret is not afflicted
with rabies. (e) The quarantine period hereby required is to be not be less
than ten days from the date on which the person was bitten. (f) If at any time during the quarantine, the health commissioner
requires the dog, cat, or ferret to be examined for symptoms of rabies, then
the examination will be by a licensed doctor of veterinary medicine. The
licensed doctor of veterinary medicine will report to the health commissioner
the conclusions reached as a result of the examinations. The examination by a
licensed doctor of veterinary medicine is to be at the expense of the owner or
harborer. (g) No dog, cat, or ferret is to be released from the required
quarantine unless and until it has a current rabies vaccination status as
demonstrated by a rabies vaccination certificate signed by a licensed doctor of
veterinary medicine. (2) If any quarantined
dog, cat, or ferret dies before the quarantine period expires, then the head of
the dog, cat, or ferret must be submitted to the Ohio department of
health's bureau of public health laboratory for rabies
examination. (3) If the owner or
harborer of the dog, cat, or ferret is unknown, the health commissioner may
direct that the dog, cat, or ferret be humanely euthanized in which case the
head of the dog, cat, or ferret is to be submitted to the Ohio department of
health's bureau of public health laboratory for rabies
examination. (B) Other biting mammals including
hybrids. (1) Whenever it is
reported to the health commissioner of the health district that any other
mammal that is known to transmit rabies has bitten or otherwise exposed an
individual to rabies, under an order issued by the health commissioner of the
health district in which the bite or exposure occurred, the health commissioner
may direct the immediate humane euthanasia of said mammal by a. (2) The brain of said
mammal is to then be submitted to the Ohio department of health's bureau
of public health laboratory for rabies examination. (C) Any non-human mammal bitten by a
known rabid mammal, or that had reasonable probability to have been bitten by a
wild carnivorous mammal or bat that is not available for rabies testing will be
regarded as having been exposed to the rabies virus. (1) Dogs, cats, ferrets
not currently vaccinated against the rabies virus or when vaccination cannot be
verified will be humanely euthanized; or if sufficient justification for
preserving the animal exists, the exposed dog, cat, ferret will be quarantined
in strict isolation under an order issued by the health commissioner of the
health district in which the bite was inflicted. Isolation in this context
refers to confinement in an enclosure that precludes direct contact with people
and other animals. (a) In all cases, said quarantine will be under the supervision
of the health commissioner and is to be at the expense of the owner or
harborer. Any signs of illness in the dog, cat, or ferret must be reported
immediately to the health commissioner. (b) The quarantine period will not be for less than four months
for dogs and cats, and not less than six months for ferrets. The dog, cat, or
ferret is to be vaccinated against rabies by a licensed doctor of veterinary
medicine upon entry into quarantine. It is recommended that the period from
exposure to vaccination not exceed ninety-six hours. If vaccination is delayed,
public health officials may consider increasing the quarantine period for dogs
and cats from four to six months. (2) A rabies vaccine
booster is to be administered immediately and the mammal quarantined under an
order issued by the health commissioner of the health district in which the
bite was inflicted under the following circumstances: mammals with a current
rabies vaccination, dogs and cats overdue for rabies vaccination with
documentation of previous vaccination(s) with a USDA-licensed rabies vaccine,
and dogs and cats overdue for rabies vaccination lacking documentation but
demonstrating an anamnestic response in paired blood samples. (a) In all cases, said quarantine will be under the supervision
of the health commissioner and is to be at the expense of the owner or
harborer. Any signs of illness in the dog, cat, or ferret must be reported
immediately to the health commissioner. (b) The quarantine period will not be for less than forty-five
days. (3) Whenever it is known
by the health commissioner of the health district that any other non-human
mammal has been exposed to rabies, the health commissioner, at his or her
discretion may direct the quarantine or immediate euthanizing of said mammal by
a suitable humane method.
Last updated August 1, 2024 at 7:55 AM
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Rule 3701-3-30 | Report of suspected rabid mammal.
Effective:
August 1, 2024
Any licensed doctor of veterinary medicine or other
person who examines, treats, owns, harbors, or otherwise cares for any mammal
which exhibits symptoms or behavior suggestive of rabies, are to confine and
isolate such mammal in suitable quarters and will report such fact within
twenty-four hours after the symptoms or behaviors are observed or known to the
health commissioner of the health district wherein such mammal is confined.
Such mammal is to be confined until it has been determined that it is not
afflicted with rabies. If it is determined that the mammal is rabid, the health
commissioner must take such action as is necessary to prevent the occurrence of
rabies in individuals or mammals known or presumed to have been exposed to such
rabid mammal.
Last updated August 1, 2024 at 7:55 AM
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