Ohio Revised Code Search

...(A) No person shall engage in sexual activity for hire. (B) No person, with knowledge that the person has tested positive as a carrier of a virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, shall engage in sexual activity for hire. (C)(1) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of prostitution, a misdemeanor of the third degree. (2) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty of eng...

...(A) In any case in which it is necessary to prove that a place is a brothel, evidence as to the reputation of such place and as to the reputation of the persons who inhabit or frequent it, is admissible on the question of whether such place is or is not a brothel. (B) In any case in which it is necessary to prove that a person is a prostitute, evidence as to the reputation of such person is admissible on the questio...

... accused shall be required to submit to medical treatment for that disease. The cost of the medical treatment shall be charged to and paid by the accused who undergoes the treatment. If the accused is indigent, the court shall order the accused to report to a facility operated by a city health district or a general health district for treatment. If the accused is convicted of or pleads guilty to the offense with whic...

...(A) A victim of a sexual offense cognizable as a violation of section 2907.02 of the Revised Code who is interviewed by a law enforcement agency shall be interviewed by a peace officer employed by the agency who has had crisis intervention training, if any of the peace officers employed by the agency who have had crisis intervention training is reasonably available. (B) When a person is charged with a violation of s...

... furnished or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, librarian, clergyman, prosecutor, judge, or other proper person. (2) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, mistake of age is not a defense to a charge under this section. (D)(1) A person directly sells, delivers,...

...(A) No person who has custody, control, or supervision of a commercial establishment, with knowledge of the character or content of the material involved, shall display at the establishment any material that is harmful to juveniles and that is open to view by juveniles as part of the invited general public. (B) It is not a violation of division (A) of this section if the material in question is displayed by placing ...

...sseminated or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, clergyman, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance. (C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of pander...

...his state, or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance. (2) Mistake of age is not a defense to a ch...

...his state, or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance. (2) Mistake of age is not a defense to a ch...

... or presented for a bona fide artistic, medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose, by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the material or performance; (b) The minor's or impaired person's parents...

...(A) No person, for the purpose of enabling a juvenile to obtain any material or gain admission to any performance which is harmful to juveniles, shall do either of the following: (1) Falsely represent that he is the parent, guardian, or spouse of such juvenile; (2) Furnish such juvenile with any identification or document purporting to show that such juvenile is eighteen years of age or over or married. (B) No juv...

...(A) No person, as a condition to the sale, allocation, consignment, or delivery of any material or goods of any kind, shall require the purchaser or consignee to accept any other material reasonably believed to be obscene, or which if furnished or presented to a juvenile would be in violation of section 2907.31 of the Revised Code. (B) No person shall deny or threaten to deny any franchise or impose or threaten to i...

...(A) An owner or manager, or agent or employee of an owner or manager, of a bookstore, newsstand, theater, or other commercial establishment engaged in selling materials or exhibiting performances, who, in the course of business: (1) Possesses five or more identical or substantially similar obscene articles, having knowledge of their character, is presumed to possess them in violation of division (A)(5) of section 2...

...(A) Without limitation on the persons otherwise entitled to bring an action for a declaratory judgment pursuant to Chapter 2721. of the Revised Code, involving the same issue, the following persons have standing to bring a declaratory judgment action to determine whether particular materials or performances are obscene or harmful to juveniles: (1) The chief legal officer of the jurisdiction in which there is reasona...

...(A) Where it appears that section 2907.31 or 2907.32 of the Revised Code is being or is about to be violated, the chief legal officer of the jurisdiction in which the violation is taking place or is about to take place may bring an action to enjoin the violation. The defendant, upon his request, is entitled to trial on the merits within five days after joinder of the issues, and the court shall render judgment withi...

...sseminated or presented for a bona fide medical, scientific, educational, religious, governmental, judicial, or other proper purpose and by or to a physician, psychologist, sociologist, scientist, teacher, person pursuing bona fide studies or research, librarian, member of the clergy, prosecutor, judge, or other person having a proper interest in the visual materials or performances. (2) The visual materials or perf...

...ablishment. An establishment in which a medical practitioner, psychologist, psychiatrist, or similar professional person licensed by the state engages in medically approved and recognized therapy, including, but not limited to, massage therapy, as regulated pursuant to section 4731.15 of the Revised Code, is not an "adult entertainment establishment." (6) "Adult motion picture theater" means a commercial establishme...

...e or a volunteer firefighter emergency medical services worker acting within the scope of the public employee's or volunteer's duties as a public employee or volunteer. (9) "Premises" means the real property on which the sexually oriented business is located and all appurtenances to the real property, including, but not limited, to the sexually oriented business, the grounds, private walkways, and parking lots...

...(A) Subject to division (D) of this section, a person who is charged with the commission of any sexually oriented offense or with a violation of section 2907.09 of the Revised Code shall appear before the court for the setting of bail if the person charged previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a sexually oriented offense, a violation of section 2907.09 of the Revised Code, or a violation of an existing or ...

...t ambulance district or joint emergency medical services district; (5) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, ambulance operator, or other member of an emergency medical service that is owned or operated by a political subdivision or a private entity; (6) The state fire marshal, the chief deputy state fire marshal, or an assistant st...

...(A) No person, by means of fire or explosion, shall knowingly do any of the following: (1) Create a substantial risk of serious physical harm to any person other than the offender; (2) Cause physical harm to any occupied structure; (3) Create, through the offer or acceptance of an agreement for hire or other consideration, a substantial risk of physical harm to any occupied structure. (B)(1) Whoever violates this...

...(A) No person, by means of fire or explosion, shall knowingly do any of the following: (1) Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to any property of another without the other person's consent; (2) Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to any property of the offender or another, with purpose to defraud; (3) Cause, or create a substantial risk of, physical harm to the statehouse or a c...

...efighters, rescue personnel, emergency medical services personnel, or emergency facility personnel to respond to an emergency or to protect and preserve any person or property from serious physical harm. (B) No person shall knowingly use any computer, computer system, computer network, telecommunications device, or other electronic device or system or the internet so as to disrupt, interrupt, or impair the function...

...(A) No person shall knowingly cause serious physical harm to an occupied structure or any of its contents. (B)(1) No person shall knowingly cause physical harm to property that is owned or possessed by another, when either of the following applies: (a) The property is used by its owner or possessor in the owner's or possessor's profession, business, trade, or occupation, and the value of the property or the ...

...(A) No person shall cause, or create a substantial risk of physical harm to any property of another without the other person's consent: (1) Knowingly, by any means; (2) Recklessly, by means of fire, explosion, flood, poison gas, poison, radioactive material, caustic or corrosive material, or other inherently dangerous agency or substance. (B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of criminal damaging or endanger...

...ed Code; (O) The information regarding medical marijuana dispensed to a patient that a retail dispensary is required to submit to the board pursuant to section 4729.771 of the Revised Code; (P) Requirements for the transmission of information pursuant to section 4729.772 of the Revised Code and requirements for the release of such information by the board.

...tly to order or direct the execution of procedures or techniques by a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse in the care and treatment of a person in any setting, except to the extent that the physician assistant is authorized to do so by a physician who is responsible for supervising the physician assistant and, if applicable, the policies of the health care facility in which the physician assistant is practic...

... physician assistants; (4) Application procedures and forms for a license to practice as a physician assistant; (5) Fees required by this chapter for issuance and renewal of a license to practice as a physician assistant; (6) Any issue the board asks the committee to consider. (B) In addition to the matters that are required to be reviewed under division (A) of this section, the committee may review, and may subm...

... but shall do so in accordance with the procedures described in that section. (H) The board may adopt rules to implement and enforce this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

...roper scope of practice or was relaying medical orders from a supervising physician, unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.

...fficient for performing evaluations and procedures in a manner that meets the minimal standards of care; (4) Requiring an assessment of the applicant's skills in recognizing and understanding diseases and conditions; (5) Requiring the applicant to undergo a comprehensive physical examination, which may include an assessment of physical abilities, evaluation of sensory capabilities, or screening for the presence...

... both of the following: (1) Policy and procedures regarding physician-delegated prescriptive authority; (2) Any issue the committee considers necessary to assist the board in fulfilling its duty to adopt rules governing physician-delegated prescriptive authority. (B) Recommendations submitted under this section are subject to the procedures and time frames specified in division (C) of section 4730.06 of the Revise...

... induce an abortion; (3) Standards and procedures to be followed by a physician assistant in personally furnishing samples of drugs or complete or partial supplies of drugs to patients under section 4730.43 of the Revised Code; (4) Any other requirements the board considers necessary to implement the provisions of this chapter regarding physician-delegated prescriptive authority.

...ant shall comply with all standards and procedures for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, as established in rules adopted under section 4730.39 of the Revised Code.

...dopt rules that establish standards and procedures to be followed by a physician assistant licensed under this chapter who has been granted physician-delegated prescriptive authority regarding the review of patient information available through the drug database under division (A)(5) of section 4729.80 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. (E) This secti...

...dopt rules that establish standards and procedures to be followed by physician assistants in the use of all drugs approved by the United States food and drug administration for use in medication-assisted treatment, including controlled substances in schedule III, IV, or V. The rules shall address detoxification, relapse prevention, patient assessment, individual treatment planning, counseling and recovery supports, d...

... purposes or treatment of the patient's medical condition. (D) To obtain informed consent for purposes of division (C)(2) of this section, the physician assistant shall do all of the following: (1) Provide the patient or the patient's legal representative with a written or electronic informed consent form that meets all of the following requirements: (a) Is a separate consent form or is included as a distinct o...

...on who performs exposure prone invasive procedures and is authorized to practice by this chapter or Chapter 4730., 4759., 4760., 4761., 4762., 4772., or 4774. of the Revised Code. The rules shall define and establish requirements for universal blood and body fluid precautions that include the following: (A) Appropriate use of hand washing; (B) Disinfection and sterilization of equipment; (C) Handling and dispos...

...ised Code that establish standards and procedures to be followed by physicians in the diagnosis and treatment of chronic pain, including standards for a physician's consultation with one or more other physicians who specialize in the treatment of the area, system, or organ of the body perceived as the source of pain and managing chronic pain by prescribing, personally furnishing, or administering controlled sub...

...ll of the following: (1) Standards and procedures for the operation of a pain management clinic; (2) Standards and procedures to be followed by a physician who provides care at a pain management clinic; (3) For purposes of division (A)(5)(a)(i) of this section, the other drugs used to treat chronic pain that identify a facility as a pain management clinic; (4) For purposes of division (A)(5)(a)(ii) of this sectio...

...dopt rules that establish standards and procedures to be followed by physicians in the use of all drugs approved by the United States food and drug administration for use in medication-assisted treatment, including controlled substances in schedule III, IV, or V. The rules shall address detoxification, relapse prevention, patient assessment, individual treatment planning, counseling and recovery supports, diversion c...

... adopt rules establishing standards and procedures to be followed by a physician when prescribing a drug that may be administered by a pharmacist pursuant to section 4729.45 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and in consultation with the state board of pharmacy.

... for performing medical evaluations and procedures in a manner that meets the minimal standards of care; (4) Requiring an assessment of the applicant's skills in recognizing and understanding diseases and conditions; (5) Requiring the applicant to undergo a comprehensive physical examination, which may include an assessment of physical abilities, evaluation of sensory capabilities, or screening for the presence...

...ard together shall develop criteria and procedures for the review and approval of impairment evaluators and treatment providers. The criteria and procedures shall address reviews conducted on a periodic basis, including the examination of approved evaluator and treatment provider outcomes and operations. (C) Separate from the confidential monitoring program established under section 4731.25 of the Revised Code, th...

...all inform the applicant of the renewal procedure. The board shall provide the application for renewal in a form determined by the board. (5) The applicant shall provide in the application the applicant's full name; the applicant's residence address, business address, and electronic mail address; the number of the applicant's license to practice; and any other information required by the board. (6)(a) Except as p...

... but shall do so in accordance with the procedures described in that section. (H) The board may adopt rules to implement and enforce this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

...m the certificate holder of the renewal procedure. The notice also shall inform the certificate holder of the reporting requirement established by division (H) of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code. At the discretion of the board, the information may be included on the application for renewal or on an accompanying page. (2) A clinical research faculty certificate may be renewed for an additional three-year period...

... (vi) The applicant has developed new procedures or treatments for complex medical problems that are recognized by peers as a significant advancement in the applicable field of medicine. (vii) The applicant has held previous academic appointments with or been employed by a health care organization that has a distinguished national or international reputation. (viii) The applicant has been the recipient of a nat...

...d may be renewed in accordance with the procedures established in those rules. (4) This section does not apply to a physician who recommends treatment with marijuana or a drug derived from marijuana under any of the following that is approved by an investigational review board or equivalent entity, the United States food and drug administration, or the national institutes of health or one of its cooperative groups ...

...of the eye examination. (E) The state medical board shall not adopt any rule that restricts the right to advertise as permitted by division (D) of this section. (F) Any municipal corporation code, ordinance, or regulation or any township resolution that conflicts with a supplier's right to advertise as permitted by division (D) of this section is superseded by division (D) of this section and is invalid. A mun...

...(A) As used in this section, "United States veterans service organization" means any organization chartered by congress or recognized by the United States department of veterans affairs for purposes of representing veterans affairs claimants. (B) A motor vehicle titled in the name of a United States veterans service organization and used solely for participation in organizational activities, exhibitions, p...

...(A) As used in this section, "historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that is more than twenty-five years old and that is owned solely as a collector's item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, parades, and similar uses. A historical motor vehicle shall not be used for general transportation, but may be operated on the public roads and highways to and from a location where maintenan...

....15 of the Revised Code, to specify the procedures for reporting the information from applications for temporary motor vehicle license registrations and for providing the information from these applications to law enforcement agencies. (F) Temporary motor vehicle license registrations issued under this section shall bear a distinctive combination of seven letters, numerals, or letters and numerals, and shall incorp...

...(A) No person shall use a replica motor vehicle for general transportation. However, a person may operate a replica motor vehicle registered under this section on the public roads and highways as follows: (1) For club activities, exhibitions, tours, parades, and similar uses; (2) To and from a location where maintenance is performed on the replica motor vehicle. (B) In lieu of the annual license tax levied in s...

...(A)(1) Upon the filing of an application for registration and the payment of the tax for registration, the registrar of motor vehicles or a deputy registrar shall determine whether the owner previously has been issued a license plate for the motor vehicle described in the application. If no license plate previously has been issued to the owner for that motor vehicle, the registrar or deputy registrar shall assign to ...

...(A)(1) The identification license plate shall be issued for a multi-year period as determined by the director of public safety, and, except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, shall be accompanied by a validation sticker, to be attached to the license plate. Except as provided in divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section, the validation sticker shall indicate the expiration of the registration period to wh...

...(A)(1) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, any person who is replacing vehicle license plates, upon request and payment of a fee of ten dollars, may retain the distinctive combination of letters and numerals on license plates previously issued to that person. A person who is replacing license plates specifically created by law for which the registrar collects a contribution or additional fee, may ret...

...The display of a single current license plate and validation sticker on a motor vehicle as required under section 4503.19 of the Revised Code sufficiently indicates that the vehicle is registered in this state. Any reference in the Revised Code to license plates, a set of license plates, registration plates, or validation stickers is deemed to be a reference to the single license plate and validation sticker required...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Dealer engaged in the business of leasing motor vehicles" means any person engaged in the business of regularly making available, offering to make available, or arranging for another person to use a motor vehicle pursuant to a bailment, lease, or other contractual arrangement. (2) "Motor vehicle" has the meaning set forth in section 4509.01 of the Revised Code. (B) An applicati...

...(A)(1) Subject to section 4503.211 of the Revised Code, no person who is the owner or operator of a motor vehicle shall fail to display in plain view on the rear of the motor vehicle a license plate that displays the distinctive number and registration mark assigned to the motor vehicle by the director of public safety, including any county identification sticker and any validation sticker when required by and issued...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Motor vehicle renting dealer" means any person engaged in the business of regularly making available, offering to make available, or arranging for another person to use a motor vehicle pursuant to a bailment, rental agreement, or other contractual arrangement for a period of thirty days or less under which a charge is made for the motor vehicle's use at a specified rate and the tit...

...The identification license plate shall consist of a placard upon the face of which shall appear the distinctive number assigned to the motor vehicle as provided in section 4503.19 of the Revised Code, in Arabic numerals or letters, or both. The dimensions of the numerals or letters and of each stroke shall be determined by the director of public safety. The license placard also shall contain the name of this state an...

...No motor vehicle designed to carry passengers, owned or leased by the state, or any of its departments, bureaus, commissions, or institutions supported in whole or in part by funds provided by the state, shall be operated or driven by any person unless it has displayed, in a prominent position on the rear of the vehicle, a license plate that shall be the same size, shape, and treated for increased visibility in the s...

...(A) No motor vehicle registered in the name of a person whose certificate of registration and identification license plates have been impounded as provided by division (B)(1) of section 4507.02 of the Revised Code, and no vehicle that may be operated pursuant to an immobilization waiver order issued pursuant to section 4503.235 of the Revised Code, shall be operated on any highway in this state unless it displays ...

...(A) Upon the receipt of identification license plates that have been suspended or impounded under any provision of law, and notwithstanding any other provision of law that requires the registrar of motor vehicles to retain the license plates, the registrar may destroy the license plates. (B) If, as authorized by division (A) of this section, the registrar destroys license plates that have been suspended or impounded...

...(A)(1) If a court is required to order the immobilization of a vehicle for a specified period of time pursuant to section 4510.11, 4510.14, 4510.161, 4510.41, 4511.19, 4511.193, or 4511.203 of the Revised Code, the court, subject to section 4503.235 of the Revised Code, shall issue the immobilization order in accordance with this division and for the period of time specified in the particular section, and the immobil...

...(A) If a court orders the criminal forfeiture of a vehicle pursuant to section 4503.233, 4503.236, 4510.11, 4510.14, 4510.161, 4510.41, 4511.19, 4511.193, or 4511.203 of the Revised Code, the order shall be issued and enforced in accordance with this division, subject to division (B) of this section. An order of criminal forfeiture issued under this division shall authorize an appropriate law enforcement agency to se...