Ohio Revised Code Search

...(A)(1) Subject to division (A)(2) of this section, the financial books and records of a recipient, and the financial books and records of any person with which the recipient contracts for the performance of the recipient's obligations under the recipient's contract with the governmental entity, shall be open to inspection by the governmental entity and by the state from the time the recipient first applies for paymen...

...agriculture, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules that do all of the following: (1) Establish procedures and eligibility criteria for making matching grants to municipal corporations, counties, townships, soil and water conservation districts established under Chapter 940. of the Revised Code, and charitable organizations described in division (B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised C...

...(A)(1) Not later than one hundred eighty days after March 15, 2001, the director of agriculture shall prepare a program for the issuance of permits to operate under this section. (2) Except for a concentrated animal feeding facility that is operating under an installation permit, on and after the date on which the director has finalized the program required under division (A)(1) of this section, no person shall own ...

... adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of the following: (A) Establish all of the following concerning permits to install and permits to operate: (1) A description of what constitutes a modification of a concentrated animal feeding facility; (2) A description of what constitutes a major operational change at a concentrated animal feeding facility; (3) The amount of the fee th...

...(A)(1) No person shall own or operate a pesticide business without obtaining a license from the director of agriculture. Licenses shall be issued for a period of time established by rule and shall be renewed in accordance with deadlines established by rule. (2) A person applying for a pesticide business license shall register each location that is owned by the person and used for the purpose of engaging in th...

...and failure to register under section 921.02 of the Revised Code; the fees for registration, registration renewal, late registration renewal, and failure to register under section 921.02 of the Revised Code that shall apply until the fees that are established under that section take effect on January 1, 2007; and the fees, deadlines, and time periods for licensure and license renewal under sections 921.06, 921....

...gerous wild animal on or after January 1, 2014. (B)(1) Except as provided in divisions (G)(1) and (2) of section 935.06 of the Revised Code, no person shall acquire, buy, sell, trade, or transfer possession or ownership of a dangerous wild animal on or after the effective date of this section. (2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, a person that operates a rescue facility may acquire, except by...

...us wild animal in this state on October 1, 2013, that wishes to continue to possess the dangerous wild animal on and after January 1, 2014, and that does not intend to propagate the animal shall apply for a wildlife shelter permit under this section. (B) An applicant for a wildlife shelter permit shall file an application for a permit with the director of agriculture on a form prescribed and provided by the d...

...adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the following: (A) Both of the following concerning the registration of dangerous wild animals under section 935.04 of the Revised Code: (1) Any additional information that must be included with a registration; (2) Standards for the care and housing of registered dangerous wild animals, including standards for the proper ca...

...r an adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to challenge the director's determination that the person violated section 939.08 of the Revised Code. The person may waive the right to an adjudication hearing. (B) If the opportunity for an adjudication hearing is waived or if, after an adjudication hearing, the director determines that a violation has occurred or is occurring, the director may issue...

...ose persons designated by division (B)(1) of section 918.10 of the Revised Code, exchanging, negotiating, or soliciting the sale, resale, exchange, or transfer of any animals in an amount of more than two hundred fifty head of cattle, horses, or other equidae or five hundred head of sheep, goats, or other bovidae, swine and other suidae, poultry, alpacas, llamas, or monitored captive deer, captive deer with sta...

... has the same meaning as in section 955.11 of the Revised Code. (B) No owner, keeper, or harborer of any female dog shall permit it to go beyond the premises of the owner, keeper, or harborer at any time the dog is in heat unless the dog is properly in leash. (C) Except when a dog is lawfully engaged in hunting and accompanied by the owner, keeper, harborer, or handler of the dog, no owner, keeper, or harbore...

...(A)(1) No person shall operate an amusement ride within the state without a permit issued by the director of agriculture under division (A)(2) of this section. The owner of an amusement ride, whether the ride is a temporary amusement ride or a permanent amusement ride, who desires to operate the amusement ride within the state shall, prior to the operation of the amusement ride and annually thereafter, submit to the ...

...ent required by division (B) of section 101.72 of the Revised Code, a statement of expenditures as specified in divisions (B) and (C) of this section. A legislative agent shall file a separate statement of expenditures under this section for each employer engaging the legislative agent. (B)(1) In addition to the information required by divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section, a statement filed by a legislative age...

...(A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (H) of this section, all of the following shall file with the appropriate ethics commission the disclosure statement described in this division on a form prescribed by the appropriate commission: every person who is elected to or is a candidate for a state, county, or city office and every person who is appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an electi...

...iolation of this chapter or section 2921.42 or 2921.43 of the Revised Code. All complaints except those by the commission shall be by affidavit made on personal knowledge, subject to the penalties of perjury. Complaints by the commission shall be by affidavit, based upon reasonable cause to believe that a violation has occurred. (B) The appropriate ethics commission shall investigate complaints, may investiga...

...(A)(1) Subject to division (A)(2) of this section, the board of commissioners on grievances and discipline of the supreme court and the joint legislative ethics committee may recommend legislation relating to ethics, conflicts of interest, and financial disclosure and shall render advisory opinions with regard to questions concerning these matters for persons for whom it is the appropriate ethics commission. (2) Th...

...ommittee, all of the following apply: (1) The legislative service commission shall prepare and make available to each member of the committee or subcommittee to which the substitute version of the bill is presented or of the committee to which the substitute version of the bill is reported a document that describes each substantive difference between the substitute version of the bill and the version of the bill tha...

...s to the general assembly under section 107.03 of the Revised Code, the governor shall include the state appropriation limitations the general assembly shall not exceed when making aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for each respective fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget. The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations the governor proposes in the state budget also shall not exceed t...

...e limited to, all of the following: (1) The right of a victim and a victim's representative, if applicable, to attend a proceeding before a grand jury, in a juvenile delinquency case, or in a criminal case without being discharged from the victim's or victim's representative's employment, having the victim's or victim's representative's employment terminated, having the victim's or victim's representative's pay de...

... program" means any of the following: (1) The nonprofit state domestic violence coalition designated by the family and youth services bureau of the United States department of health and human services; (2) A program operated by a nonprofit entity the primary purpose of which is to provide a broad range of services to victims of domestic violence that may include, but are not limited to, hotlines, emergency shelter...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "DNA" means human deoxyribonucleic acid. (2) "DNA analysis" means a laboratory analysis of a DNA specimen to identify DNA characteristics and to create a DNA record. (3) "DNA database" means a collection of DNA records from forensic casework or from crime scenes, specimens from anonymous and unidentified sources, and records collected pursuant to sections 2152.74 and 2901.07 ...

... Pursuant to division (A)(9) of section 101.82 of the Revised Code, the commission is exempt from the requirements of sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code. As used in sections 109.71 to 109.801 of the Revised Code: (A) "Peace officer" means: (1) A deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, member of the organized police department of a township or municipal corporation, member of a township police dis...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Commutation," "pardon," "prisoner," and "state correctional institution" have the same meanings as in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code. (2) "Individual's present legal status" means whichever of the following circumstances apply on the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year covered by a capital case status report described in divisions (B) and (C) of this section to a...

...(A)(1) Of the directors on the board of directors of a state bank: (a) A majority of the directors shall be outside directors. However, in the case of a stock state bank, if eighty per cent or more of any class of the bank's voting shares are owned by a company, a majority of the directors may be officers or directors of one or more affiliates of the bank. (b) For purposes of this section, anyone who is not an empl...