Ohio Revised Code Search

...f charge. (6) The sample drug is not a controlled substance. (C) A representative of a manufacturer of dangerous drugs or a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs may furnish a sample drug to a charitable pharmacy if all of the following apply: (1) Rules have been adopted rules under division (F) of this section that permit such a representative or health professional to furnish a sample drug...

...hen appropriate, and publish a list of substances or categories of substances identified to be hazardous using the criteria specified in 40 C.F.R. 261, as amended, which shall be composed of at least those substances identified as hazardous pursuant to section 3001(B) of that act. The director shall not list any waste that the administrator of the United States environmental protection agency delisted or exclu...

...C.A. 6921, as amended; (c) The "Toxic Substances Control Act," 90 Stat. 2003 (1976), 15 U.S.C.A. 2601, as amended; (d) The "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2779, 42 U.S.C.A. 9601, as amended; (e) The "Safe Drinking Water Act," 88 Stat. 1661 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), as amended. (2) Those portions of property where closure of a hazardous waste facility...

...ntifying or listing extremely hazardous substances and establishing a threshold planning quantity for each such substance. To the extent consistent with that act and applicable regulations adopted under it, the rules may establish threshold planning quantities based upon classes of those substances or categories of facilities at which such substances are present. (b) Listing hazardous chemicals, establishing thresho...

...ment, storage, or disposal of regulated substances at a reporting facility. For the purposes of this section, "actual and direct control" does not include any action taken to inspect the facility for the occurrence of a release or threatened release of a regulated substance; any response action taken under section 107(d)(1) of the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 St...

...As used in this chapter: (A) "Accidental release" means an unanticipated emission of a regulated substance into the ambient air from a stationary source. (B) "Clean Air Act Amendments" means the "Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990," 91 Stat. 685, 42 U.S.C. 7401 et al., as amended, and regulations adopted under it. (C) "Covered process" means a process that has a regulated substance present in an amount that is in ex...

...Article I. Definitions For purposes of this compact: 1. "Compacting state" means either of the following: a. Any state that has enacted the compact and which has not withdrawn or been suspended pursuant to Article XIV of the compact; b. The federal government in accordance with the commission's bylaws. 2. "Compact" means the Solemn Covenant of the States to Award Prizes for Curing Diseases enacted in this s...

...lting from the current illegal use of a controlled substance or the current use of alcoholic beverages. (17) "Dwelling unit" means a single unit of residence for a family of one or more persons. (18) "Common use areas" means rooms, spaces, or elements inside or outside a building that are made available for the use of residents of the building or their guests, and includes, but is not limited to, hallways, lounge...

...a test that discloses the presence of a controlled substance or an alcohol concentration of four-hundredths of one per cent or more by whole blood or breath, an alcohol concentration of forty-eight-thousandths of one per cent or more by blood serum or blood plasma, or an alcohol concentration of fifty-six-thousandths of one per cent or more by urine, the peace officer shall require that the person immediately surrend...

... prohibited concentration of alcohol, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine; and if the violation of which the person was convicted or in relation to which the person forfeited bail arose out of the same facts and circumstances and the same act as did the charge that was dismissed or reduced, the abstract prepared under section 45...

... prohibited concentration of alcohol, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine __________ 6 points (8) A violation of section 2913.03 of the Revised Code that does not involve an aircraft or motorboat or any ordinance prohibiting the operation of a vehicle without the consent of the owner __________ 6 points (9) Any offense under...

... prohibited concentration of alcohol, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine; (iii) Section 2903.04 of the Revised Code in a case in which the person was subject to the sanctions described in division (D) of that section; (iv) Division (A)(1) of section 2903.06 or division (A)(1) of section 2903.08 of the Revised Code or a muni...

... at least the concentration of a listed controlled substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply to the person: (a) The person successfully completed an alcohol, drug, or alcohol and drug treatment program. (b) The person has not abused alcohol or other drugs for a period satisfactory to the court. (c...

...angerous drug, other than a schedule II controlled substance as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, without a prescription from a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs if all of the following conditions are met: (1) The pharmacy at which the pharmacist practices has a record of a prescription for the drug in the name of the patient who is requesting it, but the prescription does not...

...se or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that may impair ability to practice; (6) Administering drugs for purposes other than those authorized under this chapter; (7) Willfully betraying a professional confidence; (8) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in soliciting or advertising for employment as a physician assistant; in connection with any solicitation or advertiseme...

...ated to a license; 8) Has never had a controlled substance license or permit suspended or revoked by a state or the United States Drug Enforcement Administration; and 9) Is not under active investigation by a licensing agency or law enforcement authority in any state, federal, or foreign jurisdiction. (l) "Offense" means a felony, gross misdemeanor, or crime of moral turpitude. (m) "Rule" means a written stat...

...e or that of others; (b) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, safety, or we...

...isit prior to prescribing a schedule II controlled substance to a new patient, equivalent to applicable state and federal requirements. (c)(i) A board shall not require an initial in-person visit for a new patient whose medical record indicates that the patient is receiving hospice or palliative care, who is receiving medication-assisted treatment or any other medication for opioid-use disorder, who is a patient w...

...se or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that may impair ability to practice; (19) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (B) of section 4759.05 of the Revised Code, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board in an investigative interview, an investigative office confere...

...se or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that may impair ability to practice; (7) Willfully betraying a professional confidence; (8) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in securing or attempting to secure a license to practice as an anesthesiologist assistant. As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement" means a statement that includes...

...se or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that may impair ability to practice; (19) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (E) of section 4761.03 of the Revised Code, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board in an investigative interview, an investigative office confere...

...se or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that may impair ability to practice; (7) Willfully betraying a professional confidence; (8) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in soliciting or advertising for patients or in securing or attempting to secure a license to practice as an oriental medicine practitioner or license to practice as an acupuncturist. As used in this divis...

...etermining the alcohol, drug of abuse, controlled substance, or metabolite of a controlled substance content of the applicant's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine; (4) The result of a criminal records check conducted by the bureau of criminal identification and investigation. (B) An organization may employ an applicant on a temporary provisional basis pending the completion of all of the req...

...se or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that may impair ability to practice; (7) Willfully betraying a professional confidence; (8) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in securing or attempting to secure a license to practice as a radiologist assistant. As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement" means a statement that includes a mis...

...se or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that may impair ability to practice; (7) Willfully betraying a professional confidence; (8) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement in securing or attempting to secure a license to practice as a genetic counselor. As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement" means a statement that includes a misrepr...