Ohio Revised Code Search

...rson's possession or under the person's control. (B) Divisions (A)(3), (4), and (5) of this section do not apply to any of the following: (1) A law enforcement officer who is acting within the scope of the officer's duties; (2) A person who is acting in accordance with directions given by a law enforcement officer described in division (B)(1) of this section. (C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of unlawfu...

...(A) No person shall do either of the following: (1) Change, alter, remove, or obliterate the name of the manufacturer, model, manufacturer's serial number, or other mark of identification on a firearm. (2) Possess a firearm knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the name of the manufacturer, model, manufacturer's serial number, or other mark of identification on the firearm has been changed, altered, re...

...r marksmanship under the supervision or control of a responsible adult; (4) Sell or furnish a firearm to a person who is eighteen years of age or older if the seller or furnisher knows, or has reason to know, that the person is purchasing or receiving the firearm for the purpose of selling the firearm in violation of division (A)(1) of this section to a person who is under eighteen years of age or for the purpose o...

...(A) No person under eighteen years of age shall purchase or attempt to purchase a firearm. (B) No person under twenty-one years of age shall purchase or attempt to purchase a handgun, provided that this division does not apply to the purchase or attempted purchase of a handgun by a person eighteen years of age or older and under twenty-one years of age if either of the following apply: (1) The person is a law en...

...(A) No person who acquires, possesses, or carries a firearm or dangerous ordnance in violation of section 2923.13 or 2923.17 of the Revised Code shall be prosecuted for such violation, if he reports his possession of firearms or dangerous ordnance to any law enforcement authority, describes the firearms of dangerous ordnance in his possession and where they may be found, and voluntarily surrenders the firearms or dan...

...hall possess or have under the person's control any substance, device, instrument, or article, with purpose to use it criminally. (B) Each of the following constitutes prima-facie evidence of criminal purpose: (1) Possession or control of any dangerous ordnance, or the materials or parts for making dangerous ordnance, in the absence of circumstances indicating the dangerous ordnance, materials, or parts are intende...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code. (2) "Hidden compartment" means a container, space, or enclosure that conceals, hides, or otherwise prevents the discovery of the contents of the container, space, or enclosure. "Hidden compartment" includes, but is not limited to, any of the following: (a) False, altered, or modified fuel ...

...Each federally licensed firearms dealer who sells any firearm, at the time of the sale of the firearm, shall offer for sale to the purchaser of the firearm a trigger lock, gun lock, or gun locking device that is appropriate for that firearm. Each federally licensed firearms dealer shall post in a conspicuous location in the dealer's place of business the poster furnished to the dealer pursuant to section 5502.63 of t...

...ctly or indirectly, any interest in, or control of, any enterprise or real property. (3) No person, who knowingly has received any proceeds derived, directly or indirectly, from a pattern of corrupt activity or the collection of any unlawful debt, shall use or invest, directly or indirectly, any part of those proceeds, or any proceeds derived from the use or investment of any of those proceeds, in the acquisition o...

...(A) Any person who is injured or threatened with injury by a violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code may institute a civil proceeding in an appropriate court seeking relief from any person whose conduct violated or allegedly violated section 2923.32 of the Revised Code or who conspired or allegedly conspired to violate that section, except that the pattern of corrupt activity alleged by an injured pers...

...(A) Upon the institution of any criminal proceeding charging a violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised Code, the filing of any complaint, indictment, or information in juvenile court alleging a violation of that section as a delinquent act, or the institution of any civil proceeding under section 2923.34 or 2981.05 of the Revised Code, the state, at any time during the pendency of the proceeding, may file a corru...

...As used in sections 2923.41 to 2923.44 of the Revised Code: (A) "Criminal gang" means an ongoing formal or informal organization, association, or group of three or more persons to which all of the following apply: (1) It has as one of its primary activities the commission of one or more of the offenses listed in division (B) of this section. (2) It has a common name or one or more common, identifying signs, ...

... agency has adopted a written internal control policy under division (C)(2) of this section that addresses the use of the fine moneys that it receives. Each agency shall use the fines so paid in accordance with the written internal control policy adopted by the recipient agency under division (C)(2) of this section to subsidize the agency's law enforcement efforts that pertain to criminal gangs. (2)(a) Prior t...

...Any building, premises, or real estate, including vacant land, that is used or occupied by a criminal gang on more than two occasions within a one-year period to engage in a pattern of criminal gang activity constitutes a nuisance subject to abatement pursuant to sections 3767.01 to 3767.11 of the Revised Code.

... agency has adopted a written internal control policy pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code that addresses the use of the fine moneys that it receives under this section and division (C)(1) of section 2923.42 of the Revised Code. The law enforcement agencies shall use the fines imposed and paid pursuant to this section to subsidize their efforts pertaining to criminal gangs, in accor...

...(A) In addition to any other exemption provided in this chapter or rules adopted under it, an air contaminant source is exempt from this chapter and rules adopted under it if the emissions of particulate matter, nitrogen oxides, organic compounds, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, lead, or any other air contaminant from that source do not exceed ten pounds per day, as verified in accordance with division (C) of this s...

... maintain a program for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution that is consistent with the federal Clean Air Act; (3) To authorize the state to obtain financial assistance and delegation of powers from the federal government for purposes of the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution. (B) This chapter, all rules adopted under it, and all permits, variances, and orders issued under it sh...

...Prior to issuance or renewal of a permit or a variance under division (F), (G), or (H) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code, the director of environmental protection may require the applicant to install such equipment and conduct such tests and analyses as the director finds reasonable and necessary to determine adequately the amount and content of any emissions from such sources, the ambient air quality at the pro...

...The director of environmental protection may adopt, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, an emergency action plan for the purpose of protecting the public health during air pollution episodes associated with atmospheric temperature inversions, which plan may define various levels of emergency conditions, the criteria on which such levels are based, and the measures to be taken at each level. The plan ...

...an Air Act pertaining to transportation controls, air quality maintenance plan requirements, preconstruction review of indirect sources of air pollution, nonattainment requirements, prevention of significant deterioration, or enforcement orders; (B) Provide for measures by which to notify the public during any calendar year on a regular basis of instances or areas in which any national primary ambient air quality st...

...(A) Within sixty days after the director of environmental protection or the director's agent or authorized representative receives an application for the issuance of an initial permit to operate, or for the modification or renewal of such a permit, pursuant to rules adopted under division (G) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code, the director shall determine whether the application is substantially complete or ma...

...his state pertaining to the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution, the prevention, control, and abatement of asbestos, rules adopted under those laws, and terms and conditions of permits, variances, and orders issued under those laws, and asbestos abatement licensure and certification issued under those laws. However, the director shall not expend money credited to the fund for the administration and en...

...) A Title V permit shall not apply to a physical, operational, or other change that is not a change within a permitted facility. A Title V permittee shall provide simultaneous written notice to the director and the administrator of each such off-permit change that is not addressed or prohibited by the federally enforceable portion of the Title V permit, except that no notice is required for off-permit changes that qu...

...(A) The director of environmental protection shall formulate and implement a tiered permitting system for air contaminant sources that categorizes, prioritizes, and expedites review of, and final action on, applications for installation permits and operating permits issued pursuant to divisions (F) and (G) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code, respectively. The tiered permitting system shall include at least exempt...

...ncy, personnel from local air pollution control agencies, regulated industry, small businesses, environmental advocacy organizations, and other interested persons. The director may charge a fee for the training course in an amount necessary to cover only the actual cost of the training.