Ohio Revised Code Search

...the entity satisfies the following: (1) It is a religious or nonreligious nonprofit organization exempt from federal taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code as an organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code. (2) It primarily awards academic scholarships for primary and secondary school students. (3) It prioritizes awarding its scholarships to low-income primary...

...(A) Whoever violates section 5747.19 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree. (B) Whoever violates any provision of sections 5747.01 to 5747.19 of the Revised Code, or any lawful rule promulgated by the tax commissioner under authority of any provision of those sections, for the violation of which no other penalty is provided in this section, shall be fined not less than one hundred nor more th...

... the amount of tax due under section 5751.03 of the Revised Code for the calendar quarter. (B)(1) Subject to division (B) of section 5751.05 of the Revised Code, a taxpayer shall report the taxable gross receipts for that calendar quarter. (2) With respect to taxable gross receipts incorrectly reported in a calendar quarter that has a lower tax rate, the tax shall be computed at the tax rate in effect for the q...

...d to be paid for the tax period. (B)(1) If any additional tax is found to be due, the tax commissioner may impose an additional penalty of up to fifteen per cent on the additional tax found to be due. (2) Any delinquent payments of the tax made after a taxpayer is notified of an audit or a tax discrepancy by the commissioner is subject to the penalty imposed by division (B) of this section. If an assessment is ...

...mbined taxpayer groups under section 5751.011 or 5751.012 of the Revised Code to the taxpayer's reporting person. The reporting person shall notify all members of the group of the assessment and all outstanding taxes, interest, and penalties for which the assessment is issued. (B) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax commissioner a written petit...

...n and division (F)(2)(gg) of section 5751.01 of the Revised Code: (1) "Qualified uranium receipts" means receipts from the sale, exchange, lease, loan, production, processing, or other disposition of uranium within a uranium enrichment zone certified by the tax commissioner under division (B) of this section. "Qualified uranium receipts" does not include any receipts with a situs in this state outside a uranium enr...

...n and division (F)(2)(jj) of section 5751.01 of the Revised Code: (1) "Qualifying integrated supply chain receipts" means receipts of a qualified integrated supply chain vendor from the sale of qualified property delivered to, or integrated supply chain services provided to, another qualified integrated supply chain vendor or to a retailer that is a member of the integrated supply chain. "Qualifying integrated supp...

...(A)(1) A taxpayer who fails to file a return or to remit the tax due as required by section 5753.04 of the Revised Code shall pay a penalty not to exceed the greater of five hundred dollars or ten per cent of the tax due. (2) If the tax commissioner finds additional tax to be due, the tax commissioner may impose an additional penalty of up to fifteen per cent of the additional tax found to be due. A delinquent paym...

...(A)(1) The tax commissioner may issue an assessment, based on any information in the tax commissioner's possession, against a taxpayer who fails to pay the tax levied under section 5753.02 or 5753.021 of the Revised Code or to file a return under section 5753.04 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall give the taxpayer written notice of the assessment under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice...

...a fact if any of the following apply: (1) The person has actual knowledge of the fact. (2) The person has received notice or notification of the fact. (3) From all the facts and circumstances known to the person at the time in question, the person has reason to know the fact. (B) An organization that conducts activities through employees has notice or knowledge of a fact involving a trust only from the time an em...

... in the terms of the trust, Chapters 5801. to 5811. of the Revised Code govern the duties and powers of a trustee, relations among trustees, and the rights and interests of a beneficiary. (B) The terms of a trust prevail over any provision of Chapters 5801. to 5811. of the Revised Code except the following: (1) The requirements for creating a trust; (2) The duty of a trustee to act in good faith and in accordance ...

...ing law, both of the following apply: (1) The law of the trust's principal place of administration governs the administration of the trust. (2) If the trust's principal place of administration is transferred to another jurisdiction under section 5801.07 of the Revised Code, the law of the new principal place of administration of the trust governs the administration of the trust from the time of the transfer.

...r shall include all of the following: (1) The name of the jurisdiction to which the principal place of administration is to be transferred; (2) The address and telephone number at the new location at which the trustee can be contacted; (3) An explanation of the reasons for the proposed transfer; (4) The date on which the trustee expects the proposed transfer to occur. (E) In connection with a transfer of the tru...

...rrevocable trust described in 42 U.S.C. 1396p(d)(4). (B) A noncharitable irrevocable trust may be terminated upon consent of all of the beneficiaries if the court concludes that continuance of the trust is not necessary to achieve any material purpose of the trust. A noncharitable irrevocable trust may be modified, but not to remove or replace the currently serving trustee, upon consent of all of the beneficiaries...

...chieve, all of the following apply: (1) The trust does not fail in whole or in part. (2) The trust property does not revert to the settlor or the settlor's successors in interest. (3) The court may apply cy pres to modify or terminate the trust by directing that the trust property be applied or distributed, in whole or in part, in a manner consistent with the settlor's charitable purposes. In accordance with...

...able against either of the following: (1) The beneficiary's child or spouse who has a judgment or court order against the beneficiary for support, but only if distributions can be made for the beneficiary's support or the beneficiary is entitled to receive mandatory distributions under the terms of the trust; (2) A claim of this state or the United States to the extent provided by the Revised Code or federal law. ...

...cretion, both of the following apply: (1) The court may order a distribution to satisfy a judgment or court order against the beneficiary for support of the beneficiary's child or spouse, provided that the court may order the distributions only if distributions can be made for the beneficiary's support under the terms of the trust and that the court may not order any distributions under this division to satisfy a ju...

...y do either or both of the following: (1) Act to preserve the trust property if, within a reasonable time after acting, the person sends a rejection of the trusteeship to the settlor or, if the settlor is dead or lacks capacity, to a qualified beneficiary; (2) Inspect or investigate trust property to determine potential liability under environmental or other law or for any other purpose.

...tee for any of the following reasons: (1) The trustee has committed a serious breach of trust; (2) Lack of cooperation among cotrustees substantially impairs the administration of the trust; (3) Because of unfitness, unwillingness, or persistent failure of the trustee to administer the trust effectively, the court determines that removal of the trustee best serves the interests of the beneficiaries. (C) Pending a...

...aution in doing all of the following: (1) Selecting an agent, cotrustee, or other fiduciary to whom the delegation is made; (2) Establishing the scope and terms of the delegation consistent with the purposes and terms of the trust; (3) Periodically reviewing the agent's, cotrustee's, or other fiduciary's actions in order to monitor the agent's, cotrustee's, or other fiduciary's performance and compliance with the ...

...exercise all of the following powers: (1) All powers over the trust property that an unmarried competent owner has over individually owned property; (2) Any other powers appropriate to achieve the proper investment, management, and distribution of the trust property; (3) Any other powers conferred by Chapters 5801. to 5811. of the Revised Code. (B) The exercise of a power is subject to the fiduciary duties prescr...

...(A)(1) As used in the Revised Code, the "Ohio Uniform Prudent Investor Act" means sections 5809.01 to 5809.08, 5808.03, 5808.05, and 5808.06, division (A) of section 5808.02, and division (B) of section 5808.07 of the Revised Code, and those sections may be cited as the "Ohio Uniform Prudent Investor Act." (2) As used in the Ohio Uniform Prudent Investor Act, "trustee" means a trustee under any testamentary, inter v...

...nt to the trust or its beneficiaries: (1) The general economic conditions; (2) The possible effect of inflation or deflation; (3) The expected tax consequences of investment decisions or strategies; (4) The role that each investment or course of action plays within the overall trust portfolio, which may include financial assets, interests in closely held enterprises, tangible and intangible personal property, and...

...he court may do any of the following: (1) Compel the trustee to perform the trustee's duties; (2) Enjoin the trustee from committing a breach of trust; (3) Compel the trustee to redress a breach of trust by paying money, restoring property, or other means; (4) Order a trustee to account; (5) Appoint a special fiduciary to take possession of the trust property and administer the trust; (6) Suspend the trustee; ...

...ted for the greater of the following: (1) The amount required to restore the value of the trust property and trust distributions to what they would have been had the breach not occurred; (2) The profit the trustee made by reason of the breach. (B) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if more than one trustee is liable to the beneficiaries for a breach of trust, a trustee is entitled to contribution from ...

... manner, both of the following apply: (1) The medium of settlement is cash or credit to an account in a federal reserve bank of or specified by the person to receive settlement. (2) The time of settlement is one of the following: (a) With respect to tender of settlement by cash, a cashier's check, or teller's check, when the cash or check is sent or delivered; (b) With respect to tender of settlement by credit in...

...e bank has done any of the following: (1) Paid the item in cash; (2) Settled for the item without having a right to revoke the settlement under statute, clearing house rule, or agreement; (3) Made a provisional settlement for the item and failed to revoke the settlement in the time and manner permitted by statute, clearing house rule, or agreement. (B) If a provisional settlement for an item does not become final...

...eadline it does any of the following: (1) It returns the item. (2) It returns an image of the item, if the party to which the return is made has entered into an agreement to accept an image as a return of the item and the image is returned in accordance with that agreement. (3) It sends a record providing notice of dishonor or nonpayment if the item is unavailable for return. (B) If a demand item is received b...

...(A) As used in sections 1304.51 to 1304.85 of the Revised Code: (1) "Authorized account" means a deposit account of a customer in a bank designated by the customer as a source of payment of payment orders issued by the customer to the bank. If a customer does not so designate an account, any account of the customer is an authorized account if payment of a payment order from that account is not inconsistent wi...

... the earliest of the following times: (1) When the bank pays the beneficiary as provided in division (A) or (B) of section 1304.77 of the Revised Code, or notifies the beneficiary of receipt of the order or that the account of the beneficiary has been credited with respect to the order, unless the notice indicates that the bank is rejecting the order or that funds with respect to the order may not be withdrawn or us...

...f the sender's obligation under section 1304.74 of the Revised Code to pay the receiving bank occurs as follows: (1) If the sender is a bank, payment occurs when the receiving bank receives final settlement of the obligation through a federal reserve bank or through a funds-transfer system. (2) If the sender is a bank, and the sender credited an account of the receiving bank with the sender or caused an account of ...

...cord. (B) If a law other than sections 1306.01 to 1306.23 of the Revised Code requires a record to be posted or displayed in a certain manner, to be sent, communicated, or transmitted by a specified method, or to contain information that is formatted in a certain manner, all of the following apply: (1) The record shall be posted or displayed in the manner specified in the other law. (2) Except as otherwise provide...

...saction, both of the following apply: (1) If the parties have agreed to use a security procedure to detect changes or errors and one party has conformed to the procedure, but the other party has not, and the nonconforming party would have detected the change or error had that party also conformed, the conforming party may avoid the effect of the changed or erroneous electronic record. (2) In an automated transactio...

...(A) This section and section 1306.18 of the Revised Code apply to the attribution of electronic records and electronic signatures among parties that are not state agencies. (B) For purposes of this section and section 1306.18 of the Revised Code, the commercial reasonableness of a security procedure is to be determined by a court. In making this determination, both of the following apply: (1) A security procedure e...

...lee establishes any of the following: (1) delivery of the goods to a person whose receipt was rightful as against the claimant; (2) damage to or delay, loss, or destruction of the goods for which the bailee is not liable; (3) previous sale or other disposition of the goods in lawful enforcement of a lien or on a warehouse's lawful termination of storage; (4) the exercise by a seller of its right to stop deliv...

...quirements of due negotiation [UCC 7-501] (A) The following rules apply to a negotiable tangible document of title: (1) If the document's original terms run to the order of a named person, the document is negotiated by the named person's indorsement and delivery. After the named person's indorsement in blank or to bearer, any person may negotiate the document by delivery alone. (2) If the document's origina...

... [UCC 7-502] (A) Subject to sections 1307.205 and 1307.503 of the Revised Code, a holder to which a negotiable document of title has been duly negotiated acquires thereby: (1) title to the document; (2) title to the goods; (3) all rights accruing under the law of agency or estoppel, including rights to goods delivered to the bailee after the document was issued; and (4) the direct obligation of the issuer ...

...(A) In this chapter: (1) "Adverse claim" means a claim that a claimant has a property interest in a financial asset and that it is a violation of the rights of the claimant for another person to hold, transfer, or deal with the financial asset. (2) "Bearer form," as applied to a certificated security, means a form in which the security is payable to the bearer of the security certificate according to its term...

... as otherwise provided in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section, the provisions of this chapter which validate a security or compel its issue or reissue do not apply to the extent that validation, issue, or reissue would result in overissue. (1) If an identical security which does not constitute an overissue is reasonably available for purchase, the person entitled to issue or validation may compel the issuer to ...

...asserts that a security is not valid: (1) A security, other than one issued by a government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, even though issued with a defect going to its validity, is valid in the hands of a purchaser for value and without notice of the particular defect unless the defect involves a violation of a constitutional provision. In that case, the security is valid in the hands of a...

... security to a purchaser occurs when: (1) The purchaser acquires possession of the security certificate; (2) Another person, other than a securities intermediary, either acquires possession of the security certificate on behalf of the purchaser or, having previously acquired possession of the certificate, acknowledges that it holds for the purchaser; or (3) A securities intermediary acting on behalf of the purchas...

...xchange or otherwise through brokers: (1) The selling customer fulfills his duty to transfer at the time he: (a) Places a certificated security in the possession of the selling broker or of a person designated by the broker; (b) Causes an uncertificated security to be registered in the name of the selling broker or a person designated by the broker; (c) If requested, causes an acknowledgment to be made to the sel...

...nstruction is genuine and authorized: (1) In all cases, a guaranty of the signature of the person making an indorsement or originating an instruction including, in the case of an instruction, reasonable assurance of identity; (2) If the indorsement is made or the instruction is originated by an agent, appropriate assurance of actual authority to sign; (3) If the indorsement is made or the instruction is originated...

...transfer a notification stating that: (1) The certificated security has been presented for registration of transfer or the instruction for registration of transfer of the uncertificated security has been received; (2) A demand that the issuer not register transfer had previously been received; and (3) The issuer will withhold registration of transfer for a period of time stated in the notification in order to prov...

...overed by the priority rules in Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code or the rules stated in division (C) of this section, an action based on an adverse claim to a financial asset or security entitlement, whether framed in conversion, replevin, constructive trust, equitable lien, or other theory, may not be asserted against a person who purchases a security entitlement, or an interest in a security entitlement, from an ...

...ess the context requires otherwise: (1) "Accession" means goods that are physically united with other goods in such a manner that the identity of the original goods is not lost. (2)(a) "Account," except as used in "account for," means a right to payment of a monetary obligation, whether or not earned by performance, (i) for property that has been or is to be sold, leased, licensed, assigned, or otherwise dis...

...o a person's security entitlement if: (1) The person buys a financial asset through a securities intermediary in a transaction in which the person is obligated to pay the purchase price to the securities intermediary at the time of the purchase; and (2) The securities intermediary credits the financial asset to the buyer's securities account before the buyer pays the securities intermediary. (B) The security inter...

...his section and division (B) of section 1309.312 of the Revised Code, a financing statement must be filed to perfect all security interests and agricultural liens. (B) The filing of a financing statement is not necessary to perfect a security interest: (1) That is perfected under division (D), (E), (F), or (G) of section 1309.308 of the Revised Code; (2) That is perfected under section 1309.309 of the Revised...

...lateral created by another person if: (1) The debtor acquired the collateral subject to the security interest created by the other person; (2) The security interest created by the other person was perfected when the debtor acquired the collateral; and (3) There is no period thereafter when the security interest is unperfected. (B) Division (A) of this section subordinates a security interest only if the security ...

...ol of investment property under section 1309.106 of the Revised Code has priority of a security interest held by a secured party that does not have control of the investment property. (B) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this section, conflicting security interests held by secured parties each of which has control under section 1309.106 of the Revised Code rank according to priority in time o...