Ohio Revised Code Search

...(A) The Ohio commission on service and volunteerism may do any of the following: (1) Accept monetary gifts or donations; (2) Sponsor conferences, meetings, or events in furtherance of the commission's purpose described in section 121.40 of the Revised Code and charge fees for participation or involvement in the conferences, meetings, or events; (3) Sell promotional items in furtherance of the commission's pu...

...(A) No person shall be permitted to register as an executive agency lobbyist under division (A) or (B) of section 121.62 of the Revised Code if the person is convicted of or pleads guilty to committing on or after the effective date of this section any felony offense listed or described in divisions (A)(1) to (6) of section 101.721 of the Revised Code in the circumstances specified in the particular division. (B) ...

...(A)(1) Sections 121.71 to 121.74 of the Revised Code do not apply to the incorporation by reference into a rule of any of the following: (a) A section of the Revised Code; (b) An uncodified statute of this state; (c) An act of this state in the Laws of Ohio; (d) A rule in the Administrative Code; (e) A rule in the Monthly Record; or (f) A rule in the Register of Ohio. (2) Sections 121.71 to 121.74 of the Revis...

...(A) As used in sections 121.95, 121.951, 121.952, 121.953, and 121.954 of the Revised Code, "state agency" means an administrative department created under section 121.02 of the Revised Code, an administrative department head appointed under section 121.03 of the Revised Code, and a state agency organized under an administrative department or administrative department head. "State agency" also includes the department...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 125.831 of the Revised Code. (2) "Biodiesel" means a mono-alkyl ester combustible liquid fuel that is derived from vegetable oils or animal fats, or any combination of those reagents, and that meets American society for testing and materials specification D6751-03a for biodiesel fuel (B100) blend stock distillate fuels. (3...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Alternative fuel" means compressed natural gas, liquid natural gas, or liquid petroleum gas. (2) "Alternative fuel vehicle" means a motor vehicle that is registered in this state for operation on public highways, is propelled by a motor that runs on alternative fuel, and has a gross vehicle rating of at least twenty-six thousand pounds. "Alternative fuel vehicle" includes a bi-fuel...

...(A) A project shall meet the following requirements in order to be considered for a grant under the annual competitive process: (1) The application for the grant is made by an eligible applicant. (2) The project for which the application is made is an eligible project. (3) The eligible applicant commits to all the following: (a) To use the grant to pay only allowable costs for the eligible project; (b) Not to us...

...(A)(1) For each calendar year in which a rural business growth fund makes or maintains a growth investment in a rural business concern in this state, the fund shall determine the number of new full-time equivalent employees produced at the business concern as a result of the investment. New full-time equivalent employees shall be computed by subtracting the number of full-time equivalent employees at the rural busine...

...(A) In order to be eligible for a grant under section 122.20 of the Revised Code, the applicant shall demonstrate both of the following to the director of development: (1) That the applicant is proposing to carry out the purposes described in section 122.20 of the Revised Code in an entity that has been designated as an eligible area by the director of development under division (A) of section 122.21 of the Revised ...

...(A) In order to be eligible for financial assistance under section 122.24 of the Revised Code, an applicant shall demonstrate to the director of development the applicant's capacity to undertake and oversee the project, as evidenced by documentation of the applicant's past performance in economic development projects. (B) In order for an applicant to be eligible for financial assistance under section 122.24 of the...

...The director of development services is vested with the powers and duties provided in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, to promote the welfare of the people of the state through the interaction of the business and industrial community and educational institutions in the development of new technology and enterprise. (A) It is necessary for the state to establish the programs created pursuant...

...The director of development services shall administer the following programs: (A) The industrial technology and enterprise development grant program, to provide capital to acquire, construct, enlarge, improve, or equip and to sell, lease, exchange, and otherwise dispose of property, structures, equipment, and facilities within the state. Such funding may be made to enterprises that propose to develop new product...

...(A) There is hereby created in the development services agency the steel futures program, for the purpose of preserving and improving the existing industrial base of the state, improving the economy of the state by providing employment, increased productivity, and ensuring continued technological development consistent with these goals, and maintaining a high standard of living for the people of this state. The steel...

...As used in sections 122.40 to 122.4077 of the Revised Code: (A) "Application" means an application made under section 122.4013 of the Revised Code for a program grant. (B) "Broadband funding gap" means the difference between the total amount of money a broadband provider calculates is necessary to construct the last mile of a specific broadband network and the total amount of money that the provider has determi...

...(A) As used in section 122.4023 and sections 122.4030 to 122.4035 of the Revised Code, "challenging provider" means either of the following: (1) A broadband provider that provides tier two broadband service within or directly adjacent to an eligible project; (2) A municipal electric utility that provides tier two broadband service to an area within the eligible project that is within the geographic area served ...

...(A) The director of development shall do all of the following: (1) Receive applications for assistance under sections 122.39 and 122.41 to 122.62 of the Revised Code; (2) Make a final determination whether to approve the application for assistance; (3) Transmit determinations to approve assistance to the controlling board together with any information the controlling board requires for the board's review and...

...(A) There is hereby created in the department of development the capital access loan program to assist participating financial institutions in making program loans to eligible businesses that face barriers in accessing working capital and obtaining fixed asset financing. In administering the program, the director of development may do any of the following: (1) Receive and accept grants, gifts, and contribution...

...(A) An electing subdivision, a county land reutilization corporation, or a qualified nonprofit developer may apply to the director of development for a grant from the welcome home Ohio fund created in section 122.631 of the Revised Code to pay or defer the cost to rehabilitate or construct qualifying residential property held by the electing subdivision's or county land reutilization corporation's land reutilization ...

...(A)(1) There is hereby created the lakes in economic distress revolving loan program to assist businesses and other entities that are adversely affected due to economic circumstances that result in the declaration of a lake as an area under economic distress by the director of natural resources under division (A)(2) of this section. The director of development services shall administer the program. (2) The director...

...(A)(1) There is hereby created the building demolition and site revitalization program to award grants for the demolition of commercial and residential buildings and revitalization of surrounding properties on sites that are not brownfields. The program shall be administered by the director of development pursuant to this section and rules adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section. (2) The director shall...

...As used in sections 122.71 to 122.83 of the Revised Code: (A) "Financial institution" means any banking corporation, trust company, insurance company, savings and loan association, building and loan association, or corporation, partnership, federal lending agency, foundation, or other institution engaged in lending or investing funds for industrial or business purposes. (B) "Project" means any real or personal pro...

...(A) There is hereby created the minority development financing advisory board to assist in carrying out the programs created pursuant to sections 122.71 to 122.83 and 122.87 to 122.89 of the Revised Code. (B) The board shall consist of ten members. The director of development or the director's designee shall be a voting member on the board. Seven members shall be appointed by the governor with the advice and consen...

...(A) As used in this section: "Women-owned business enterprise" means any individual, partnership, corporation, or joint venture of any kind that is owned and controlled by women who are United States citizens and residents of this state or of a reciprocal state. "Owned and controlled" means that at least fifty-one per cent of the business, including corporate stock if it is a corporation, is owned by women and ...

...(A) The director of development services shall, with respect to each project for which a loan, grant, tax credit, or other state-funded financial assistance is awarded by the development services agency, make all of the following information available to the public within thirty days after the agency enters into a contract with the recipient: (1) A summary of the project that includes all of the following: (a) A ...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Eligible applicant" means a person or a political subdivision. (2) "Eligible project" means a project that, upon completion, will be a site and facility primarily intended for commercial, industrial, or manufacturing use. "Eligible projects" do not include sites and facilities intended primarily for residential, retail, or government use. (3) "Person" has the same meaning as...

...dministration of local anesthesia to a patient. "Direct supervision" does not mean that the dentist must observe the administration of local anesthesia to a patient. (B) Under the direct supervision of a dentist, a dental hygienist may administer intraoral block and infiltration local anesthesia to a patient if the dental hygienist is in compliance with division (D) of this section and either of the following...

...renewal application; (2) The number of patients treated, during the two years prior to submission of the renewal application, by each dental hygienist providing dental hygiene services under the dentist's authorization; (3) For each number of patients provided under division (B)(2) of this section, the number of patients whom the dentist clinically evaluated following the provision of dental hygiene services by a d...

...ialysis center; (e) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility; (f) An ambulatory surgical facility; (g) A freestanding cardiac catheterization facility; (h) A freestanding birthing center; (i) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center; (j) A freestanding radiation therapy center. (2) "Nurse education program" means a prelicensure nurse education program approved by the board of nu...

...wing: (1) Criteria for referral of a patient by the clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to a collaborating physician or podiatrist or another physician or podiatrist; (2) A process for the clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to obtain a consultation with a collaborating physician or podiatrist or another physician or...

... authority to administer to a specified patient a drug, unless the drug is a controlled substance or is listed in the formulary established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the Revised Code. The delegation shall be in accordance with division (B) of this section and standards and procedures established in rules adopted under division (N) of section 4723.07 of the Revised Code. (B) Prior to delegating the a...

...gnificant drug-induced side effect in a patient due to the optometrist's administering, employing, applying, or prescribing a topical ocular or therapeutic pharmaceutical agent to or for the patient. The board, by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall establish reporting procedures and specify the types of side effects to be reported. The information provided to the board shall not i...

...the purpose of direct administration to patients in the course of the professional's practice, if all of the following apply: (a) At the time the request is made, the drug is not commercially available regardless of the reason that the drug is not available, including the absence of a manufacturer for the drug or the lack of a readily available supply of the drug from a manufacturer. (b) A limited quantity of t...

...ity for a dangerous drug dispensed to a patient, a terminal distributor shall pay to the 340B covered entity the full reimbursement amount the terminal distributor receives from the patient and the patient's health insurer, including a third-party administrator or medicaid managed care organization, except that the terminal distributor may deduct from the full reimbursement amount a fee agreed on in writing by the te...

...dangerous drugs that dispenses drugs to patients in this state and is included in the types of pharmacies specified in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code shall submit to the board the following prescription information: (1) Terminal distributor identification; (2) Patient identification; (3) Prescriber identification; (4) Date prescription was issued by prescriber; (5) Date drug was dispense...

... section, who personally furnishes to a patient a controlled substance, naltrexone, or other dangerous drug the board includes in the database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code shall submit to the board the following information: (1) Prescriber identification; (2) Patient identification; (3) Date drug was furnished by the prescriber; (4) Indication of whether the drug furnished i...

... and maintaining programs that address patient safety and education, supply and demand of health care professionals, and information sharing with the public and the individuals regulated by the board. The board shall not solicit or accept a grant or service that would interfere with the board's independence or objectivity, as determined by the board. Money received by the board under this division shall be de...

...g: (a) Provide the highest quality of patient care from expert physicians; (b) Conduct groundbreaking research leading to medical advancements for current and future patients; (c) Provide medical education and graduate medical education to educate and train physicians. (2) "Affiliated physician group practice" means a medical practice that consists of one or more physicians authorized under this chapter to pr...

...tric medicine and surgery shall refer a patient to a person for a designated health service if the license holder, or a member of the license holder's immediate family, has either of the following financial relationships with the person: (1) An ownership or investment interest in the person whether through debt, equity, or other means; (2) Any compensation arrangement involving any remuneration, directly or indirec...

...s necessary to protect against abuse of patients and third-party payers; (C) Any additional requirements to be applied to the exceptions provided in division (C) of section 4731.67 and divisions (B), (C), (D), (E), and (F) of section 4731.68 of the Revised Code that the board determines necessary to protect against abuse of patients and third-party payers; (D) Any financial relationships that the board determines d...

...ignated by the surgeon, shall guide the patient through provided or referred services in a manner that is consistent with NAPBC standards. If a surgeon who is to perform a mastectomy considers breast reconstruction appropriate for the patient, the surgeon or designated person shall offer the patient a preoperative referral to a reconstructive or plastic surgeon in accordance with NAPBC standards.

...'s human reproductive material when the patient on whom the procedure was performed did not consent to the use of the material from that person; (b) Failed to comply with the standards or requirements of sections 3111.88 to 3111.96 of the Revised Code, including the terms of the written consent form; (c) Misrepresented to the patient receiving the procedure any material information about the donor's profile, incl...

...ent and performed recklessly: (A) The patient on whom the procedure was performed and the patient's spouse or surviving spouse; (B) The child born as a result of the procedure.

...s of this state. Three members shall be patient advocates who are not mental health professionals and who either are parents or other relatives of a person who has received or is receiving mental health services or are representatives of organizations that represent persons who have received or are receiving mental health services. At least one patient advocate member shall be a parent or other relative of a mental h...

...all be provided certified copies of the patient records that were the basis for the facility's action. Prior to release to the board, the summary shall be approved by the peer review committee that reviewed the case or by the governing board of the facility. The filing of a report with the board, a decision not to file a report with the board, an investigation by the board, or any disciplinary action taken by the bo...

... solicitor for the purpose of obtaining patients; (5) Obtains a fee on the assurance that an incurable disease can be cured; (6) Advertises in a manner that violates section 4741.21 of the Revised Code; (7) Divides fees or charges or has any arrangement to share fees or charges with any other person, except on the basis of services performed; (8) Sells any biologic containing living, dead, or sensitized o...

...er tests of vestibular function only to patients who have been referred to him by a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery. If an audiologist administers an audiometric test for tinnitus and his examination or evaluation of the patient reflects the presence of otological or systemic disease, the audiologist shall promptly refer t...

...l therapy programs, treatment planning, patient education and instruction, and consultative services. With respect to the evaluation of a person, "physical therapy" includes determining a physical therapy diagnosis in order to treat the person's physical impairments, functional limitations, and physical disabilities; determining a prognosis; and determining a plan of therapeutic intervention. If performed by a pers...

...e prescription of, or the referral of a patient by, a person who is licensed in this or another state to do at least one of the following: (a) Practice medicine and surgery, chiropractic, dentistry, osteopathic medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery; (b) Practice as a physician assistant; (c) Practice nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse. (2) The prohibition in division (H)(1) of...

...or interpreting symptoms presented by a patient to establish the cause and nature of the patient's injury, emergent condition, or functional impairment and the plan of care for that injury, emergent condition, or functional impairment within the scope of athletic training. "Athletic training diagnosis" does not include a medical diagnosis. (B) A person licensed as an athletic trainer pursuant to this chapter may en...

...engaging in any of the following with a patient other than the spouse of the athletic trainer: (a) Sexual conduct, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code; (b) Sexual contact, as defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code; (c) Verbal behavior that is sexually demeaning to the patient or may be reasonably interpreted by the patient as sexually demeaning; (14) In the case of an athletic traine...