Ohio Revised Code Search

...pmental disabilities to be in executive control of an institution under the jurisdiction of the department of developmental disabilities. (M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management services provided to an individual with a developmental disability that the state medicaid plan requires. (N) "Intellectual disability" means a disability characterized by having significantly subaverage general inte...

...al treatment of children subject to the control of the department of youth services. The department of youth services may, upon the request of a juvenile court not having a regular probation officer, provide probation services for such court. Upon request by the department of youth services, any public agency or group care facility established or administered by the state for the care and treatment of children and y...

...smissing a home care attendant. (6) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code. (7) "Custodian" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code. (8) "Gastrostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted catheter that terminates in the stomach. (9) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 of the Revised Code. (10) "Health care professi...

...rds and, to the extent permitted by the physical limits of the site, by personal inspection of the elements and systems. Any limits on the inspection shall be stated in the report. (H) A statement of significant provisions for management of the condominium development, including all of the following: (1) Conditions for the formation of a unit owners association; (2) The apportionment of voting rights among the mem...

...reatening behavior that may represent a physical threat to a school community; (2) Identify individuals to whom threatening behavior should be reported and steps to be taken by those individuals; (3) Establish threat assessment guidelines including identification, evaluation of seriousness of threat or danger, intervention to reduce potential violence, and follow-up to assess intervention results; (4) Establ...

...d by this chapter, which provisions are controlling notwithstanding any other provisions of law pertaining thereto. (2) An action taken under division (Q)(2) of this section does not limit the generality of division (Q)(1) of this section, and is subject to division (C) of this section and, if and to the extent otherwise applicable, Section 13 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution. The bond proceedings may contain a c...

...ical inquiry and experimentation in the physical sciences with the goal of increasing scientific knowledge that may reveal the bases for new or enhanced products, equipment, or processes. (9) "Technology transfer" means the transfer of technology from one sector of the economy to another, including the transfer of military technology to civilian applications, civilian technology to military applications, or technol...

...well; (9) The chemical composition and physical properties of the substance proposed to be injected. (D) Based upon conditions observed by the director or his authorized representative during drilling or completion of a class I injection well, the director may request the holder of an injection well drilling permit issued under section 6111.044 of the Revised Code to submit to the director such information and test...

...e board. A majority of the judges shall control. If the court rejects the plan, the board shall proceed as in the first instance under this section to prepare another plan. If the court refers the plan to the board for amendment, then the court shall continue the hearing to a day certain without publication of notice. If the court approves the plan as the official plan of the district, a certified copy of the j...

...evelopment of natural resources and the control of the environment; (g) Long-range programming and financing of capital projects and facilities. (2) Promoting understanding of and recommending administrative and regulatory measures to implement the plans of the region; (3) Collecting, processing, and analyzing social and economic data, undertaking continuing studies of natural and human resources, coordinating suc...

...y of contracting illness resulting from physical contact with animals, animal feed, animal waste, or surfaces contaminated by animal waste; (f) The possibility that a participant may act in a negligent manner, including by failing to follow instructions given by the agritourism provider or by failing to exercise reasonable caution while engaging in the agritourism activity that may contribute to injury to that parti...

... Comply with a vaccination and parasite control program that is provided by a veterinarian and that is consistent with recommendations of the American veterinarian medical association or the American animal hospital association; (V) If a surgical or euthanasia procedure is required, use a veterinarian to perform the procedure.

... capability. (K) "Inspection" means a physical examination of an amusement ride by an inspector for the purpose of approving the application for a permit. "Inspection" includes a reinspection. (L) "Accident" means an occurrence during the operation of an amusement ride that results in death or injury requiring immediate hospital admission. (M) "Serious injury" means an injury that does not require immediate hos...

...There is hereby created a controlling board consisting of all of the following: (A) The director of budget and management or an employee of the office of budget and management designated by the director; (B) The chairperson or vice-chairperson of the finance-appropriations committee of the house of representatives, as designated by the speaker; (C) The chairperson or vice-chairperson of the finance committee...

... his designee shall be president of the controlling board. The president shall prepare the proposed agenda for the meetings of the board and shall provide, at least seven days prior to the meeting, copies of the proposed agenda and supporting documentation to the members of the board and to the legislative budget office of the legislative service commission. The director shall designate an employee of the office of ...

...The controlling board may, at the request of any state agency or the director of budget and management, authorize, with respect to the provisions of any appropriation act: (A) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within but not between state agencies, except such transfers as the director of budget and management is authorized by law to make, provided that no transfer shall be made by the director for the ...

...The controlling board may authorize any state agency for which an appropriation is made, in any act making appropriations for capital improvements, to expend the moneys appropriated otherwise than in accordance with the items set forth, and for such purpose may authorize transfers among items or create new items and authorize transfers thereto, provided that prior to such transfers the agency seeking the same shall n...

... director of budget and management, the controlling board may approve the making of a purchase if the agency seeking to make the purchase has met both of the following requirements: (1) The agency has utilized one of the following competitive selection or evaluation and selection processes: (a) The requirements for competitive sealed bidding under section 125.07 of the Revised Code; (b) The requirements for c...

...The controlling board shall take no action which does not carry out the legislative intent of the general assembly regarding program goals and levels of support of state agencies as expressed in the prevailing appropriation acts of the general assembly.

...ereby created in the state treasury the controlling board emergency purposes/contingencies fund, consisting of transfers from the general revenue fund and any other funds appropriated by the general assembly. Moneys in the fund may be used by the controlling board at the request of a state agency or the director of budget and management for the purpose of providing disaster and emergency aid to state agencies and pol...

...(A) No person, with purpose to commit or to promote or facilitate the commission of aggravated murder, murder, kidnapping, abduction, compelling prostitution, promoting prostitution, trafficking in persons, aggravated arson, arson, aggravated robbery, robbery, aggravated burglary, burglary, trespassing in a habitation when a person is present or likely to be present, engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity, corrupt...

...e amount or number of unit doses of the controlled substance involved in the drug abuse offense is an offense of the same degree as the drug abuse offense attempted would be if that drug abuse offense had been committed and had involved an amount or number of unit doses of the controlled substance that is within the next lower range of controlled substance amounts than was involved in the attempt. An attempt to commi...

...(A) No person, acting with the kind of culpability required for the commission of an offense, shall do any of the following: (1) Solicit or procure another to commit the offense; (2) Aid or abet another in committing the offense; (3) Conspire with another to commit the offense in violation of section 2923.01 of the Revised Code; (4) Cause an innocent or irresponsible person to commit the offense. (B) It is no de...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Compensation" means money, thing of value, or financial benefit. "Compensation" does not include bail, fines, or court costs. (2) "Critical infrastructure facility" has the same meaning as in section 2911.21 of the Revised Code. (3) "Organization" has the same meaning as in section 2901.23 of the Revised Code. (B) No organization shall knowingly direct, authorize, facilitate,...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Restricted firearm" means a firearm that is dangerous ordnance or that is a firearm that any law of this state prohibits the subject person from possessing, having, or carrying. (2) "Qualifying adult" means a person who is all of the following: (a) Twenty-one years of age or older; (b) Not legally prohibited from possessing or receiving a firearm under 18 U.S.C. 922(g)(1) to ...