Ohio Revised Code Search

...(A) A permit to practice under the oral health access supervision of a dentist issued under section 4715.363 of the Revised Code expires on the thirty-first day of December of the odd-numbered year that occurs after the permit's issuance. A dental hygienist who desires to renew a permit to practice under the oral health access supervision of a dentist shall apply, under oath, to the state dental board on a form presc...

...(A) As used in this section and in sections 4715.431 to 4715.437 of the Revised Code: (1) "Authorizing dentist" means the holder of a current, valid teledentistry permit issued under this section who authorizes a dental hygienist or expanded function dental auxiliary to perform services under section 4715.431 of the Revised Code. (2) "Dental hygiene services" means the prophylactic, preventive, and other procedur...

...A teledentistry permit issued under section 4715.43 of the Revised Code expires on the thirty-first day of December of the first odd-numbered year occurring after the permit's issuance. A dentist who desires to renew a permit shall apply, under oath, to the state dental board on a form prescribed by the board and pay a renewal fee of twenty dollars. The board shall renew a teledentistry permit for a two- year perio...

...(A) Each individual seeking a certificate to practice as a dental x-ray machine operator shall apply to the state dental board on a form the board shall prescribe and provide. Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the application shall be accompanied by an application fee of thirty-two dollars. (B) The board shall review all applications received and, except as provided in division (C) of this section...

...(A) Each person seeking approval for an educational program in dental x-ray machine operation shall apply to the state dental board on a form the board shall prescribe and provide. The application shall be accompanied by the fee established in rules adopted under division (C) of this section. (B) The board shall approve educational programs that meet the standards established in rules adopted under division (C) of ...

...(A) Each individual seeking to register with the state dental board as an expanded function dental auxiliary shall file with the secretary of the board a written application for registration, under oath, on a form the board shall prescribe and provide. Except as provided in division (C) of this section, an applicant shall include with the completed application all of the following: (1) An application fee of twenty-...

...(A) Registration under section 4715.62 of the Revised Code expires on the thirty-first day of December of the year following the year in which the registration occurs. An individual may renew a registration for subsequent two-year periods by submitting both of the following to the secretary of the state dental board each time the individual seeks to renew a registration: (1) A completed application for renewal, unde...

...(A) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the government, transaction of the business, and the management of the affairs of the board of embalmers and funeral directors and the crematory review board, and for the administration and enforcement of this chapter. These rules shall include all of the following: (1) The nature, scope, cont...

...(A) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, any person who desires to obtain a permit as a crematory operator shall apply to the board of embalmers and funeral directors on a form prescribed by the board. The applicant shall include with the application the initial permit fee set forth in section 4717.07 of the Revised Code and evidence, verified under oath and satisfactory to the board, that the applican...

...(A)(1) A licensed funeral director who desires to obtain a license to operate a funeral home, a licensed embalmer who desires to obtain a license to operate an embalming facility, or a holder of a crematory operator permit who desires to obtain a license to operate a crematory facility shall apply to the board of embalmers and funeral directors on a form prescribed by the board. The application shall include the init...

...or courtesy card permits shall apply on forms prescribed by the board, pay a biennial fee set by the board for initial applications and renewals, and adhere to such other requirements imposed by the board on courtesy card permit holders. (D) No courtesy card permit holder shall be authorized to undertake any of the following activities in this state: (1) Arranging funerals or disposition services with members of ...

...(A) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may, except as provided in division (G) of this section, refuse to grant or renew, or may suspend or revoke, any license or permit issued under this chapter or may require the holder of a license or permit to take corrective action courses for any of the following reasons: (1) The holder of a license or permit obtained the license or permit by fraud or misrepresenta...

...(A) Any purchaser, on initially entering into a preneed funeral contract may, within seven days after entering into that contract, rescind the contract and request and receive from the seller of the contract one hundred per cent of all payments made under the contract. Each preneed funeral contract shall contain the following notice in boldface print and in substantially the following form: "NOT...

...(A) No verbal agreement, made by a purchaser as a result of a telephone solicitation, to purchase goods or services from a telephone solicitor is valid or legally binding unless the telephone solicitor receives from the purchaser a signed, written confirmation that complies with divisions (F) and (G) of this section and discloses in full the terms of the agreement. (B) No purchaser is liable for payment for goods o...

...pt of a grant; (2) Grant application forms and procedures; (3) The amounts in which grants may be made and the total amount that may be awarded to a nurse education program that has a partnership with other education programs, a community health agency, a health care facility, or a patient centered medical home; (4) A method whereby the board may evaluate the effectiveness of a partnership between joint reci...

...(A)(1) Each of the following shall submit a request to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation for a criminal records check of that individual: (a) An individual who applies for licensure under section 4723.09 of the Revised Code; (b) An individual who applies for issuance of a certificate under section 4723.651, 4723.75, 4723.85, or 4723.89 of the Revised Code; (c) An individual who applies f...

...The "Nurse Licensure Compact" is hereby ratified, enacted into law, and entered into by the state of Ohio as a party to the compact with any other state that has legally joined in the compact as follows: Nurse Licensure Compact Approved by the May 4, 2015 Special Delegate Assembly ARTICLE I Findings and Declaration of Purpose a. The party states find that: 1. The health and safety of the public are affect...

...ode, when a licensed practical nurse performs an intravenous therapy procedure at the direction of a registered nurse, the registered nurse or another registered nurse shall be readily available at the site where the intravenous therapy is performed, and before the licensed practical nurse initiates the intravenous therapy, the registered nurse shall personally perform an on-site assessment of the adult patient who i...

...(A) A licensed practical nurse may perform on any person any of the intravenous therapy procedures specified in division (B) of this section if both of the following apply: (1) The licensed practical nurse acts at the direction of a registered nurse or a physician, physician assistant, dentist, optometrist, or podiatrist who is authorized to practice in this state and the registered nurse, physician, physician assi...

...(A)(1) As used in this section: (a) "Free clinic" has the same meaning as in section 3701.071 of the Revised Code. (b) "Indigent and uninsured person" and "operation" have the same meanings as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code. (2) For the purposes of this section, a person shall be considered retired from practice if the person's license has expired with the intention of ceasing to practice nursing as a ...

...(A) The board of nursing, by a vote of a quorum, may impose one or more of the following sanctions if it finds that a person committed fraud in passing an examination required to obtain a nursing license or dialysis technician certificate issued by the board or committed fraud, misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing a nursing license or dialysis technician certificate issued by the board: deny, r...

...tion from a prosecutor shall be made on forms prescribed and provided by the board. The report shall include the name and address of the license or certificate holder, the charge, and the certified court documents recording the action. (B) If any person or governmental entity fails to provide a report required by this section, the board may seek an order from a court of competent jurisdiction compelling submission ...

...(A)(1) Subject to division (A)(2) of this section, and notwithstanding any provision of this chapter or rule adopted by the board of nursing, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner who holds a certificate to prescribe issued under section 4723.48 of the Revised Code may do either of the following without having examined an individual to whom epinephrine may be administer...

...A person not otherwise authorized to administer drugs may administer a drug to a specified patient if all of the following conditions are met: (A) The authority to administer the drug is delegated to the person by an advanced practice registered nurse who is a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner and holds a license issued under section 4723.42 of the Revised Code. (...

...(A)(1) Subject to division (A)(2) of this section, and notwithstanding any provision of this chapter or rule adopted by the board of nursing, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code may do either of the following without having examined an individual to whom glucagon may be administe...

...(A) Subject to division (B) of this section, courts of record may declare rights, status, and other legal relations whether or not further relief is or could be claimed. No action or proceeding is open to objection on the ground that a declaratory judgment or decree is prayed for under this chapter. The declaration may be either affirmative or negative in form and effect. The declaration has the effect of a final jud...

...When the judge has examined the cause of caption and detention of a person brought before him as provided in section 2725.12 of the Revised Code, and is satisfied that such person is unlawfully imprisoned or detained, he shall forthwith discharge such person from confinement. On such examination, the judge may disregard matters of form or technicalities in any mittimus or order of commitment by a court or officer aut...

...(A) The powers of a receiver shall be set forth in the order of the court that appointed the receiver as those powers may be modified by the court or as otherwise approved by the court upon application of the receiver or a party to the action. (B) Under the control of the court that appointed the receiver as provided in section 2735.01 of the Revised Code, the receiver may do any of the following: (1) Bring and def...

...(A)(1) The state hereby waives its immunity from liability, except as provided for the office of the state fire marshal in division (G)(1) of section 9.60 and division (B) of section 3737.221 of the Revised Code and subject to division (H) of this section, and consents to be sued, and have its liability determined, in the court of claims created in this chapter in accordance with the same rules of law applicable to s...

...The clerk of the court of claims shall do all of the following: (A) Administer oaths and take and certify affidavits, depositions, and acknowledgments of powers of attorney and other instruments in writing; (B) Prepare the dockets, enter and record the orders, judgments, decisions, awards, and proceedings of the court of claims, and issue writs and process; (C) Maintain an office in Franklin county in rooms ...

...(A) The complaint or other pleading asserted in the court of claims against the state shall name as defendant each state department, board, office, commission, agency, institution, or other instrumentality whose actions are alleged as the basis of complaint. (B) Upon the filing of the complaint or other pleading requiring service of summons, the clerk of the court of claims shall issue summons to each defendant and ...

...(A) A claim for an award of reparations shall be commenced by filing an application for an award of reparations with the attorney general. The application may be filed by mail. If the application is filed by mail, the post-marked date of the application shall be considered the filing date of the application. The application shall be in a form prescribed by the attorney general and shall include a release authorizing ...

...(A)(1) The court, in which any person is convicted of or pleads guilty to any offense other than a traffic offense that is not a moving violation, shall impose the following sum as costs in the case in addition to any other court costs that the court is required by law to impose upon the offender: (a) Thirty dollars, if the offense is a felony; (b) Nine dollars, if the offense is a misdemeanor. The court shall...

...(A) In order to provide for an expeditious and economical procedure that attempts to resolve disputes alleging a denial of access to public records in violation of division (B) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code, except for a court that hears a mandamus action pursuant to that section, upon the expiration of the three-day period in which a public office or person responsible for public records may cure or address ...

...nclude any one or more of the following forms of property or casualty self-insurance for the purpose of covering any other liabilities or risks of the members of the pool: (a) Public general liability, professional liability, or employees liability; (b) Individual or fleet motor vehicle or automobile liability and protection against other liability and loss associated with the ownership, maintenance, and use of mot...

...(A) As used in the Revised Code: (1) "Force" means any violence, compulsion, or constraint physically exerted by any means upon or against a person or thing. (2) "Deadly force" means any force that carries a substantial risk that it will proximately result in the death of any person. (3) "Physical harm to persons" means any injury, illness, or other physiological impairment, regardless of its gravity or dura...

...(A) As used in sections 2901.30 to 2901.32 of the Revised Code: (1) "Information" means information that can be integrated into the computer system and that relates to the physical or mental description of a minor including, but not limited to, height, weight, color of hair and eyes, use of eyeglasses or contact lenses, skin coloring, physical or mental disabilities, special medical conditions or needs, abnormalit...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Business entity" means any form of corporation, partnership, association, cooperative, joint venture, business trust, or sole proprietorship that conducts business in this state. (2) "Business of private investigation" and "private investigator" have the same meanings as in section 4749.01 of the Revised Code. (3) "Disabled adult" and "elderly person" have the same meanings as ...

...As used in sections 2907.01 to 2907.38 and 2917.211 of the Revised Code: (A) "Sexual conduct" means vaginal intercourse between a male and female; anal intercourse, fellatio, and cunnilingus between persons regardless of sex; and, without privilege to do so, the insertion, however slight, of any part of the body or any instrument, apparatus, or other object into the vaginal or anal opening of another. Penetration, ...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Human reproductive material" means: (a) Human spermatozoa or ova; (b) A human organism at any stage of development from fertilized ovum to embryo. (2) "Assisted reproduction" means a method of causing pregnancy other than through sexual intercourse including all of the following: (a) Intrauterine insemination; (b) Human reproductive material donation; (c) In vitr...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Data" has the same meaning as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code and additionally includes any other representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions that are being or have been prepared in a formalized manner. (2) "Deceptive" means that a statement, in whole or in part, would cause another to be deceived because it contains a misleading representat...

...(A)(1) A physician who performs or induces or attempts to perform or induce an abortion on a pregnant woman shall submit a report to the department of health in accordance with the forms, rules, and regulations adopted by the department that includes all of the information the physician is required to certify in writing or determine under section 2919.17, section 2919.18, divisions (A) and (C) of section 2919.192, di...

...(A) Notwithstanding division (A)(3) of this section, if a person who intends to perform or induce an abortion on a pregnant woman has determined, under section 2919.192 of the Revised Code, that the unborn human individual the pregnant woman is carrying has a detectable heartbeat, the person shall not, except as provided in division (B) of this section, perform or induce the abortion without meeting all of the follo...

...(A) A woman who meets either or both of the following criteria may file a civil action for the wrongful death of her unborn child: (1) A woman on whom an abortion was performed or induced in violation of division (A) of section 2919.193 or division (A) of section 2919.195 of the Revised Code; (2) A woman on whom an abortion was performed or induced who was not given the information described in divisions (A)(1) and...

...(A) A physician who performs or induces or attempts to perform or induce an abortion on a pregnant woman shall submit a report to the department of health in accordance with the forms, rules, and regulations adopted by the department that includes all of the information the physician is required to certify in writing or determine under sections 2919.201 and 2919.203 of the Revised Code. (B) By the thirtieth day of...

...(A) No person shall knowingly make a false statement, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false statement previously made, when any of the following applies: (1) The statement is made in any official proceeding. (2) The statement is made with purpose to incriminate another. (3) The statement is made with purpose to mislead a public official in performing the public official's official function. (4) Th...

...Each person, board, or entity that owns or controls any place or premises identified in division (B) of section 2923.126 of the Revised Code as a place into which a valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed handgun, or a designee of such a person, board, or entity, shall post in one or more conspicuous locations in the premises a sign that contains a statement in substantially the following f...

...(A) No person shall knowingly cultivate marihuana or knowingly manufacture or otherwise engage in any part of the production of a controlled substance. (B) This section does not apply to any person listed in division (B)(1), (2), or (3) of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code to the extent and under the circumstances described in those divisions. (C)(1) Whoever commits a violation of division (A) of this section t...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Administer epinephrine" means to inject an individual with epinephrine using an autoinjector in a manufactured dosage form. (2) "Prescriber" and "qualified entity" have the same meanings as in section 3728.01 of the Revised Code. (B) An individual or qualified entity is not subject to criminal prosecution for a violation of section 4731.41 of the Revised Code or criminal prosecuti...

...(A) As used in this section and sections 2927.021 to 2927.024 of the Revised Code: (1) "Age verification" means a service provided by an independent third party (other than a manufacturer, producer, distributor, wholesaler, or retailer of cigarettes, other tobacco products, alternative nicotine products, or papers used to roll cigarettes) that compares information available from a commercially available database, ...