Ohio Revised Code Search

...HIV test to the department of health on forms and in a manner prescribed by the director. In each county the director shall designate the health commissioner of a health district in the county to receive the reports. (C) No person shall fail to comply with the reporting requirements established under division (B) of this section.  (D) Information reported under this section that identifies an individual is confid...

...In the case of an ambulatory surgical facility not certified by the centers for medicare and medicaid services as an ambulatory surgical center, the director of health shall conduct an inspection of the facility each time the facility submits an application for license renewal. The director shall not renew the license unless all of the following conditions are met: (A) The inspector conducting the inspection c...

...(A) The director of environmental protection shall develop and administer a federally approvable Title V permit program and shall take all necessary and appropriate action to implement, through the issuance of Title V permits, applicable requirements of the federal Clean Air Act. Title V permits shall be required only for major sources and affected sources, as defined in 40 C.F.R. 70.2, and solid waste incineration u...

... of vital statistics shall supply blank forms of certificates and instructions to such persons as require them, and shall require each birth, fetal death, or death certificate, when presented for filing, to be made out in accordance with sections 3705.01 to 3705.29 of the Revised Code, the rules adopted by the director of health, and the registration instructions of the director. If a birth, fetal death, or death cer...

...Upon receipt of the items sent by a probate court pursuant to section 3107.19 of the Revised Code concerning the adoption of a child born in this state whose adoption was decreed on or after January 1, 1964, the department of health shall issue, unless otherwise requested by the adoptive parents, a new birth record using the child's adopted name and the names of and data concerning the adoptive parents. The new...

...All marriages taking place within the state, all divorces, dissolutions, and annulments of marriages decreed by a court of this state, and all corrections of certificates of marriage shall be registered with the office of vital statistics of the department of health. On or before the tenth day of each month, the probate judge of each county shall forward to the department on a form prescribed and furnished by the dir...

...Whenever it is alleged that the facts stated in any birth, fetal death, or death record filed in the department of health are not true, the director may require satisfactory evidence to be presented in the form of affidavits, amended records, or certificates to establish the alleged facts. When established, the original record or certificate shall be supplemented by the affidavit or the amended certificate or record ...

...(A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the director of health, the state registrar, or a local registrar, on receipt of a signed application and the fee specified in section 3705.24 of the Revised Code, shall issue a certified copy of a vital record, or of a part of a vital record, in the director's or registrar's custody to any applicant, unless the vital record has ceased to be a public record pursuan...

...The Ohio air quality development authority may at any time issue revenue bonds and notes of the state in such principal amount as, in the opinion of the authority, are necessary for the purpose of paying any part of the cost of one or more air quality projects or parts thereof, including one or more payments pursuant to a commodity contract entered into in connection with the acquisition or construction of air qualit...

...(A) As used in this section: (1) "Youth athlete" means an individual who wishes to practice for or compete in athletic activities organized by a youth sports organization; (2) "Youth sports organization" has the same meaning as in section 3707.51 of the Revised Code. (B) Prior to the start of each athletic season, a youth sports organization that is subject to this section shall hold an informational meeting...

...Two or more city health districts may be united to form a single city health district by a majority affirmative vote of the legislative authority of each city affected by the union. If at least three per cent of the qualified electors residing within each of two or more city health districts sign a petition proposing a union into a single city health district, an election shall be held as provided in this sec...

...(A) Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, no person shall engage in any asbestos hazard abatement activities in this state unless licensed or certified pursuant to this chapter. (B) To apply for licensure as an asbestos hazard abatement contractor or certification as an asbestos hazard abatement specialist, an asbestos hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos hazard abatement project designer, or an asbest...

... following: (1) Licensure application forms and procedures; (2) Renewal procedures, including procedures that address the right of the director of health, at the director's sole discretion, to conduct an inspection prior to renewal of a license; (3) Initial license fees and license renewal fees; (4) Fees for inspections conducted by the director under section 3711.10 of the Revised Code; (5) Safety standard...

...(A) Any person required to register under division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who imports bedding or stuffed toys into this state for retail sale or use in this state and any person required to register under division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who manufactures bedding or stuffed toys in this state for retail sale or use in this state shall submit a report to the superintendent o...

...(A)(1) Not later than one hundred eighty days after December 22, 2005, and in accordance with rules adopted under section 3714.02 of the Revised Code, the director of environmental protection shall establish a program for the issuance of permits to install for new construction and demolition debris facilities. (2) On and after December 22, 2005, no person shall establish a new construction and demolition debris faci...

...(A) A physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, or certified mental health assistant may authorize one or more pharmacists and any of the pharmacy interns supervised by the one or more pharmacists to use a protocol developed pursuant to rules adopted under this section for the purpose of dispensing overdose reversal drugs. If use of the protocol has been authorized, a pharmacist or pharmacy ...

...(A) The following acts and causing them are prohibited: (1) The manufacture, sale, or delivery, holding or offering for sale of any food, drug, device, or cosmetic that is adulterated or misbranded; (2) The adulteration or misbranding of any food, drug, device, or cosmetic; (3) The receipt in commerce of any food, drug, device, or cosmetic that is adulterated or misbranded, and the delivery or proffered delivery t...

...A cosmetic is misbranded within the meaning of sections 3715.01 and 3715.52 to 3715.72, inclusive, of the Revised Code, if: (A) Its labeling is false or misleading in any particular. (B) It is in package form unless it bears a label containing: (1) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor; (2) An accurate statement of the quantity of the contents in terms of weight, measure, or n...

...The state board of pharmacy shall adopt rules governing the drug repository program that establish all of the following: (A) Eligibility criteria for pharmacies, hospitals, and nonprofit clinics to participate in the program, including, in the case of nonprofit clinics, a definition of "underinsured person"; (B) Standards and procedures for accepting, safely storing, and distributing drugs donated or given; (C...

...(A) All inspections of retail food establishments conducted by a licensor under this chapter shall be conducted according to the procedures and schedule of frequency specified in rules adopted under section 3717.33 of the Revised Code. An inspection may be performed only by an individual registered as an environmental health specialist or environmental health specialist in training under Chapter 3776. of the Revised ...

...Trade secrets and other forms of information that under this chapter are required to be furnished to or are procured by a licensor of retail food establishments shall be for the exclusive use and information of the licensor in the discharge of the licensor's official duties. The information shall not be open to the public or used in any action or proceeding in any court. If the licensor is a board of health, th...

...(A) All inspections of food service operations conducted by a licensor under this chapter shall be conducted according to the procedures and schedule of frequency specified in rules adopted under section 3717.51 of the Revised Code. An inspection may be performed only by an individual registered as an environmental health specialist or environmental health specialist in training under Chapter 3776. of the Revised Cod...

...Trade secrets and other forms of information that, under this chapter, are required to be furnished to or are procured by a licensor of food service operations shall be for the exclusive use and information of the licensor in the discharge of the licensor's official duties. The information shall not be open to the public or used in any action or proceeding in any court. If the licensor is a board of health, the boar...

...(A) There is hereby created the sewage treatment system technical advisory committee consisting of the director of health or the director's designee and thirteen members who are knowledgeable about sewage treatment systems and technologies. The director or the director's designee shall serve as committee secretary and may vote on actions taken by the committee. Of the thirteen members, five shall be appointed by the ...

... the system design consistently underperforms. (3) Divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section apply only to subsurface dispersal systems or components of a system and do not apply to effluent discharged into waters of the state.

...(A) Imposition of a mandatory indefinite prison term consisting of a minimum term of fifteen years and a maximum term of life imprisonment upon an offender pursuant to division (A)(3)(e)(iv) or (B)(2)(c) of section 2971.03 of the Revised Code is precluded unless the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to attempted rape and unless the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense speci...

...(A) Imposition of an additional prison term of one, two, three, four, five, or six months under division (H)(2)(a)(i) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, an additional prison term of one, two, three, four, five, six, seven, eight, nine, ten, eleven, or twelve months under division (H)(2)(a)(ii) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, an additional definite jail term of not more than sixty days under division (E)(...

...(A) Imposition of a mandatory prison term under division (B)(7) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code is precluded unless the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony violation of section 2905.01, 2905.02, 2907.21, 2907.22, or 2923.32, division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2907.323, or division (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 2919.22 of the Revised Code and unless the indictment, count in the...

...Imposition of a mandatory prison term under division (B)(8) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code or a mandatory jail term under division (E) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code is precluded unless the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of section 2903.11, 2903.12, or 2903.13 of the Revised Code and unless the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense specifies...

...(A) The imposition of a mandatory prison term of two, three, four, five, six, seven, eight, nine, ten, or eleven years upon an offender under division (K) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code is precluded unless the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to committing a violent felony offense and unless the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense specifies that the offender is a ...

...(A) Imposition of a mandatory prison term under division (B)(9) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code is precluded unless the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.11 of the Revised Code and unless the indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging the offense specifies one of the following: (1) Regarding a violation of division (A)(1) of s...

...(A) Imposition of a mandatory prison term of six years upon an offender under division (B)(10) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code is precluded unless the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A) of section 2903.11 of the Revised Code and unless the indictment, count, or information charging the offense specifies that the victim of the offense suffered permanent disabling harm as a ...

...No indictment or information shall be quashed, set aside, or dismissed, or motion to quash be sustained, or any motion for delay of sentence for the purpose of review be granted, nor shall any conviction be set aside or reversed on account of any defect in form or substance of the indictment or information, unless the objection to such indictment or information, specifically stating the defect claimed, is made prior ...

...The court may at any time before, during, or after a trial amend the indictment, information, or bill of particulars, in respect to any defect, imperfection, or omission in form or substance, or of any variance with the evidence, provided no change is made in the name or identity of the crime charged. If any amendment is made to the substance of the indictment or information or to cure a variance between the indictme...

...Prosecutions for misdemeanors may be instituted by a prosecuting attorney by affidavit or such other method as is provided by law in such courts as have original jurisdiction in misdemeanors. Laws as to form, sufficiency, amendments, objections, and exceptions to indictments and as to the service thereof apply to such affidavits and warrants issued thereon.

...A warrant for removal specified in section 2941.40 of the Revised Code shall be in the usual form, except that it shall set forth that the accused is in a state correctional institution. The warrant shall be directed to the sheriff of the county in which the conviction was had or the indictment or information is pending. When a copy of the warrant is presented to the warden or the superintendent of a state correction...

...A motion to quash may be made when there is a defect apparent upon the face of the record, within the meaning of sections 2941.02 to 2941.35, inclusive, of the Revised Code, including defects in the form of indictment and in the manner in which an offense is charged.

...Pleas of guilty or not guilty may be oral. Pleas in all other cases shall be in writing, subscribed by the defendant or his counsel, and shall immediately be entered upon the minutes of the court.

...If a defendant pleads that he has had former judgment of conviction or acquittal, or has been once in jeopardy, he must set forth in his plea the court, time, and place of such conviction, acquittal, or jeopardy. No claim of former judgment of conviction or acquittal, or jeopardy may be given in evidence under the plea of not guilty.

...If a defendant was formerly acquitted on the ground of variance between the indictment or information and the proof, or if the indictment or information was dismissed, without a judgment of acquittal, upon an objection to its form or substance, or in order to hold the defendant for a higher offense, it is not an acquittal of the same offense.

...Whenever a defendant is acquitted on the merits, he is acquitted of the same offense, notwithstanding any defect in form or substance in the indictment or information on which the trial was had.

...A person called as a juror in a criminal case may be challenged for the following causes: (A) That the person was a member of the grand jury that found the indictment in the case; (B) That the person is possessed of a state of mind evincing enmity or bias toward the defendant or the state; but no person summoned as a juror shall be disqualified by reason of a previously formed or expressed opinion with reference ...

...(A) In criminal cases jurors and the jury shall take the following oath to be administered by the trial court or the clerk of the court of common pleas, and the jurors shall respond to the oath "I do swear" or "I do affirm": "Do you swear or affirm that you will diligently inquire into and carefully deliberate all matters between the State of Ohio and the defendant (giving the defendant's name)? Do you swear or affir...

...If the jurors are permitted to separate during a trial, they shall be admonished by the court not to converse with, nor permit themselves to be addressed by any person, nor to listen to any conversation on the subject of the trial, nor form or express any opinion thereon, until the case is finally submitted to them.

...When bail is fixed pursuant to division (B) of section 2953.03 or section 2949.02 or 2953.09 of the Revised Code in connection with an appeal, a reduction or increase in the amount of that bail or other change in that bail shall not be required of the accused during the pendency of the appeal unless the trial judge or magistrate, or the court in which the appeal is being prosecuted, finds that there is good cause to ...

...(A) A board of county commissioners of any county containing fifty-five or more law enforcement agencies by resolution may elect to participate in a criminal justice regional information system, either by creating and maintaining a new criminal justice regional information system or by participating in an existing criminal justice regional information system. (B) A county is not eligible to participate in any crimi...

...(A) Subject to division (B) of this section, the clerk of the court of common pleas shall report to the state public defender all cases in which an indigent person was convicted of a felony, all cases in which reimbursement is required by section 2949.20 of the Revised Code, and all cost bills for transportation that are prepared pursuant to section 2949.17 of the Revised Code. The reports shall be filed for each fis...

...(A)(1)(a) Immediately after a sentencing hearing is held on or after January 1, 2008, for an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a child-victim oriented offense and is sentenced to a prison term, a term of imprisonment, or any other type of confinement and before the offender is transferred to the custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction or to the official in charge of the jail, workhou...

...(A) If an offender or delinquent child is required to register pursuant to division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of section 2950.04 or 2950.041 of the Revised Code, the delinquent child if not a public registry-qualified juvenile offender registrant shall provide written notice of any change of residence address, and the offender and public registry-qualified juvenile offender registrant shall provide notice of any change of ...

...e offender with a written notice that informs the offender that authorized probation officers or adult parole authority field officers with supervisory responsibilities over the offender who are engaged within the scope of their supervisory duties or responsibilities may conduct the types of searches described in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section during the period of community control sanction or the nonreside...